Nokea
A nurse is evaluating teaching about nutrition with the guardians of an 11-year-old child. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "Our child wants to eat as much as we do, but we're afraid it will lead to becoming overweight."
- B. "Our child skips lunch sometimes, but we figure it's okay as long as we eat a healthy breakfast and dinner."
- C. "We limit fast-food restaurant meals to three times a week now."
- D. "We reward school achievements with a point system instead of pizza or ice cream."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rewarding school achievements with a point system rather than food items like pizza or ice cream is a healthier approach. This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching about nutrition and the importance of not using food as a reward. Choices A, B, and C do not demonstrate a clear understanding of the teaching as they focus on concerns about overeating, skipping meals, and limiting fast-food consumption but do not address the concept of avoiding food rewards for achievements.
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Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
When assessing a client's heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a:
- A. Pericardial friction rub
- B. Heart murmur
- C. S3 heart sound
- D. S4 heart sound
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is characterized by a scratching sound that occurs during both systole and diastole. It becomes more distinct when the client is sitting up and leaning forward. This indicates an inflammation of the pericardial sac rubbing against the layers of the heart. Heart murmurs (choice B) are abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent blood flow, not by friction like in a pericardial rub. S3 and S4 heart sounds (choices C and D) are additional heart sounds related to abnormal ventricular filling, not to pericardial friction rubs.
During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
- A. I have problems with diarrhea.
- B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
- C. I have diminished sexual function.
- D. I often feel jittery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.