Nokea
During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon's office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?
- A. "I'd prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife."
- B. "I understand the surgery won't proceed unless I fill out these forms."
- C. "I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine."
- D. "I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.
You may also like to solve these questions
The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
- A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
- B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
- C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
- D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.
A client who is postoperative has paralytic ileus. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?
- A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
- B. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain
- C. Normal bowel sounds with cramping
- D. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Paralytic ileus is a condition where there is a temporary paralysis of the bowel, leading to absent bowel sounds and abdominal distention. This occurs because the bowel is not functioning properly to propel contents, resulting in a lack of bowel sounds. Absent bowel sounds with distention are typical findings in paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain are more indicative of increased motility and are not expected in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds with cramping may be seen in other conditions, such as gastroenteritis. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness are not typical findings in paralytic ileus.
The healthcare provider is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the healthcare provider use when reporting to the oncoming shift?
- A. Cheilitis
- B. Halitosis
- C. Glossitis
- D. Dental caries
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct term the healthcare provider will use when reporting the extremely bad breath of the unconscious patient to the oncoming shift is 'Halitosis' (Choice B). Halitosis specifically refers to bad breath. Cheilitis (Choice A) is inflammation of the lips, not related to bad breath. Glossitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the tongue, not directly associated with bad breath. Dental caries (Choice D) are cavities in the teeth, which can contribute to bad breath but are not the term used to describe bad breath itself.
How can the LPN/LVN best handle the situation of a postoperative client being kept awake by a neighboring client with dementia who sings all night?
- A. Tell the neighboring client to stop singing.
- B. Close the doors to both clients' rooms at night.
- C. Give the complaining client the prescribed sedative as needed.
- D. Move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best way to handle the situation in this scenario is to move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall. This solution is considerate to both clients because it addresses the issue by providing a quieter environment for the client with dementia while allowing the postoperative client to rest. Choice A is inappropriate as it does not address the root cause of the problem and may not be feasible or respectful. Choice B of closing the doors may not effectively reduce the noise disturbance. Choice C of giving the complaining client sedatives should be the last resort and not the initial solution, as it does not address the underlying issue causing the disturbance.