Nokea
A nurse is monitoring a client following ferrous sulfate administration. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Phlebitis
- B. Dark
- C. orange-colored stools
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Constipation. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement commonly associated with gastrointestinal side effects, including constipation. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down bowel movements. Phlebitis (A) is inflammation of a vein and is not a common adverse effect of ferrous sulfate. Dark (B) or orange-colored stools (C) are expected side effects of iron supplements due to the change in color caused by the iron, but they are not harmful. Constipation (D) is the most concerning adverse effect to monitor for as it can lead to discomfort and potential complications if left untreated.
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A 4-year-old girl with a history of recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising is referred to you for evaluation. She is found to have a prolonged PTT and a factor VIII level that is less than 1%. Both parents have a history of excessive bleeding. She is admitted with a severe episode of epistaxis, and your colleague orders 40 IU/kg of recombinant factor VIII. Her epistaxis resolves initially but within an hour starts again at the same severity as before. What is the best next step?
- A. Infuse a von Willebrand factor concentrate.
- B. Give another dose of recombinant factor VIII concentrate.
- C. Call otorhinolaryngology to pack her nose.
- D. Check for a factor VIII inhibitor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infuse a von Willebrand factor concentrate. In this scenario, the 4-year-old girl has a history of recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising, indicative of a bleeding disorder. The prolonged PTT and factor VIII level less than 1% suggest a deficiency in von Willebrand factor (VWF) or factor VIII. When the initial dose of recombinant factor VIII did not completely resolve the epistaxis, it indicates a possible deficiency in VWF activity. Therefore, the best next step is to infuse a von Willebrand factor concentrate to address the VWF deficiency, which should help control the bleeding.
Summary:
- Option B (Give another dose of recombinant factor VIII concentrate) is not the best choice because the initial dose did not fully resolve the bleeding, indicating a different factor may be deficient.
- Option C (Call otorhinolaryngology to pack her nose) addresses the symptom but does not
What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client who just completed a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy?
- A. Teach the client to avoid activity for 24 to 48 hours to prevent infection.
- B. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) to promote comfort.
- C. Check the pressure dressing frequently for signs of excessive or active bleeding.
- D. Report the laboratory results to the primary health care provider.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check the pressure dressing frequently for signs of excessive or active bleeding. This is the priority because post bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, there is a risk of bleeding due to the procedure. By checking the dressing, the nurse can assess for any signs of excessive bleeding or hematoma formation, which are crucial to prevent complications.
A: Teaching the client to avoid activity is important but not the priority immediately post-procedure.
B: Administering NSAIDs may not be appropriate as they can increase the risk of bleeding.
D: Reporting the lab results is important but not the priority over ensuring immediate post-procedure safety.
A 20-month-old otherwise healthy male presents late for his 18-month well child check. During his first year of life, he took iron-fortified formula and had a point-of-care hemoglobin (Hgb) of 12 g/dL at his 1-year well child check. His mother reports that he is a picky eater but loves milk and has recently become obsessive about chewing the corners of his cardboard books. Physical examination is normal except for a flow murmur. Which combination of laboratory test results listed below would most likely characterize this patient?
- A. Hgb 8.7 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 fL, serum ferritin 2 ng/mL
- B. Hgb 12.0 g/dL, MCV 80 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- C. Hgb 9.2 g/dL, MCV 60 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- D. Hgb 11.2 g/dL, MCV 90 fL, serum ferritin 7 ng/mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it indicates iron deficiency anemia. The low Hgb of 8.7 g/dL is below normal range for his age. The MCV of 60 fL is low, indicating microcytic anemia which is characteristic of iron deficiency. The serum ferritin level of 2 ng/mL is very low, supporting the diagnosis.
Choice B is incorrect as the Hgb and MCV are within normal range, and the ferritin level is not indicative of iron deficiency. Choice C has a low Hgb but normal MCV and ferritin level. Choice D has a normal Hgb and low ferritin, but the MCV is high, inconsistent with iron deficiency anemia.
After receiving a diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukemia, a patient is visibly distraught, stating, 'I have no idea where to go from here.' How should the nurse prepare to meet this patient's psychosocial needs?
- A. Assess the patient's previous experience with the health care system.
- B. Reassure the patient that treatment will be challenging but successful.
- C. Assess the patient's specific needs for education and support.
- D. Identify the patient's plan of medical care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because assessing the patient's specific needs for education and support is crucial in addressing psychosocial needs. By understanding the patient's knowledge gaps and support requirements, the nurse can provide tailored information and resources to help the patient cope effectively. This empowers the patient to make informed decisions and feel supported throughout the treatment process.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Assessing the patient's previous experience with the health care system may provide some insight but does not directly address the current psychosocial needs.
B: Reassuring the patient about treatment success is important but may not adequately address the patient's immediate distress and uncertainty.
D: Identifying the patient's plan of medical care is important but focuses more on the medical aspect rather than psychosocial support and education.
A 20-month-old otherwise healthy male presents late for his 18-month well child check. During his first year of life, he took iron-fortified formula and had a point-of-care hemoglobin (Hgb) of 12 g/dL at his 1-year well child check. His mother reports that he is a picky eater but loves milk and has recently become obsessive about chewing the corners of his cardboard books. Physical examination is normal except for a flow murmur. Which combination of laboratory test results listed below would most likely characterize this patient?
- A. Hgb 8.7 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 fL, serum ferritin 2 ng/mL
- B. Hgb 12.0 g/dL, MCV 80 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- C. Hgb 9.2 g/dL, MCV 60 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- D. Hgb 11.2 g/dL, MCV 90 fL, serum ferritin 7 ng/mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it reflects iron deficiency anemia in a 20-month-old child who is a picky eater and has pica behavior. The low hemoglobin level of 8.7 g/dL indicates anemia. The MCV of 60 fL suggests microcytic anemia, typical of iron deficiency. The serum ferritin level of 2 ng/mL confirms low iron stores.
Choice B is incorrect as the hemoglobin level is normal, MCV is higher, and serum ferritin is not indicative of iron deficiency anemia.
Choice C is incorrect as the hemoglobin level is higher, and the MCV is not consistent with iron deficiency anemia.
Choice D is incorrect as the hemoglobin level is higher, MCV is too high for iron deficiency anemia, and the serum ferritin level does not support iron deficiency.