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A nurse is performing passive range of motion on a client who had a stroke. The nurse should identify that passive range of motion is performed to increase which of the following?
- A. Muscle mass
- B. Bone density
- C. Joint flexibility
- D. Muscle strength
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Passive range of motion exercises are performed to maintain or improve joint flexibility in clients who are unable to move their joints independently. This helps prevent contractures and stiffness. Joint flexibility allows for better mobility and reduces the risk of injury. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Muscle mass is not directly affected by passive range of motion exercises. B) Bone density is not the primary focus of passive range of motion exercises. D) Muscle strength is not the main goal of passive range of motion exercises.
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A nurse is caring for four clients who have drainage tubes. Which of the following clients should the nurse recognize as being at risk for hypokalemia?
- A. The client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction
- B. The client who has a chest tube to water seal
- C. The client who has an indwelling urinary catheter to gravity drainage
- D. The client who has a tracheostomy tube attached to humidified oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction. Suctioning through the NG tube can lead to loss of gastric contents, including potassium, which can result in hypokalemia. The other choices do not directly affect potassium levels. B: A chest tube to water seal is used to drain air or fluid from the pleural space, not likely to cause hypokalemia. C: An indwelling urinary catheter to gravity drainage does not impact potassium levels. D: A tracheostomy tube with humidified oxygen does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the client with the NG tube to suction is at risk for hypokalemia due to potential potassium loss.
A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse set up a sterile field. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. Prepares the sterile field 2 hr before it is needed
- B. Uses a surface that is at waist height
- C. Places the sterile field against a wall in the client's room
- D. Opens the first flap of the sterile package towards the nurse's body
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because setting up a sterile field at waist height minimizes the risk of contamination. This position ensures better visibility and accessibility for the nurse while maintaining sterility. Choice A is incorrect as preparing the sterile field too early can lead to contamination. Choice C is incorrect as placing the sterile field against a wall increases the risk of contamination from the wall. Choice D is incorrect because the first flap should be opened away from the body to prevent contamination.
A nurse opens a unit-dose of a prescribed medication prior to administering it to a client. After education, the client refuses to take the medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the facility’s ethics committee
- B. Return the opened medication to the medication cart
- C. Report the incident to the provider
- D. Fill out an incident report
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report the incident to the provider. The nurse should report the client's refusal to take the medication to the provider to ensure appropriate documentation and follow-up care. This step is crucial for the client's safety and well-being.
A: Notifying the ethics committee is not necessary in this situation as the provider should be the first point of contact.
B: Returning the opened medication to the cart is inappropriate and unsafe as it could lead to medication errors.
D: Filling out an incident report may be necessary, but reporting to the provider should be the immediate action.
In summary, option C is the correct choice as it prioritizes the client's care and ensures proper communication with the healthcare provider.
A nurse is assessing a client who has circulatory overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hypotension
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia. In circulatory overload, the body is trying to compensate for the increased volume of fluid in the circulatory system by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate circulation. Diaphoresis (A) is excessive sweating, not typically associated with circulatory overload. Weight loss (B) is not expected as circulatory overload is characterized by excess fluid retention. Hypotension (C) is unlikely as the body's response to fluid overload is to increase blood pressure. Tachycardia (D) is the correct choice as the heart rate increases to help pump the excess fluid throughout the body.
A nurse is teaching a class about expected physiological changes in older adult clients. Which of the following changes should the nurse include?
- A. Increase in startle reflex
- B. Increase in muscle mass
- C. Decrease in body fat
- D. Decrease in systolic blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in startle reflex. As individuals age, their neurological system undergoes changes leading to increased sensitivity and exaggerated responses, including an increase in the startle reflex. This change is attributed to alterations in neurotransmitter levels and sensory processing.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Increase in muscle mass - Muscle mass typically decreases with age due to hormonal changes and decreased physical activity.
C: Decrease in body fat - Older adults tend to experience an increase in body fat and a decrease in muscle mass, contributing to changes in body composition.
D: Decrease in systolic blood pressure - While blood pressure tends to increase with age due to changes in blood vessel elasticity and hormonal changes, a decrease in systolic blood pressure is not a common expected physiological change in older adults.