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A nurse is planning care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client¢â‚¬â„¢s teaching plan?
- A. Avoid all forms of sugar
- B. Check blood glucose levels once a week
- C. Rotate insulin injection sites
- D. Monitor urine ketone levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rotate insulin injection sites. This instruction is crucial to prevent lipohypertrophy, which can lead to inconsistent insulin absorption. By rotating injection sites, the client ensures proper insulin absorption and prevents complications. Checking blood glucose levels once a week (B) is not frequent enough for proper diabetes management. Avoiding all forms of sugar (A) is an outdated approach, as moderation is key. Monitoring urine ketone levels (D) is not as reliable as blood ketone testing for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis risk.
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The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
2. International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy.
3. INR is more specific for monitoring heparin therapy compared to other options.
4. Prothrombin Time (PT) and Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are not as accurate for heparin monitoring.
5. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, but INR is a more precise indicator of heparin's effect.
The nurse is evaluating the health status of an older client. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports decreased urine output
- B. Client reports loss of appetite
- C. Client reports pain in the lower back
- D. Client reports a persistent cough
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain in the lower back may indicate a potential serious issue such as kidney problems or infection in the elderly. The kidneys are located in the lower back region, so pain in this area could be a sign of kidney dysfunction. The nurse should report this finding to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice A is incorrect because decreased urine output can be a common issue in older adults and may not always indicate a serious problem. Choice B is incorrect as loss of appetite can have various causes and may not be as urgent as lower back pain. Choice D is also incorrect as a persistent cough can have multiple causes, but it is not as concerning as potential kidney issues indicated by lower back pain in an older client.
A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is experiencing abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea, which could indicate a gynecological issue. A pelvic examination by a healthcare provider is necessary to assess for any potential reproductive system problems, such as ovarian cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. This examination will provide valuable information to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because notifying the parents to pick up the client does not address the primary concern of evaluating the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. Choice C is also incorrect as determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, while important, does not take precedence over a thorough pelvic examination. Choice D is incorrect as asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination should only be done by a healthcare provider in a proper clinical setting, not in a school clinic.
Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. High levels of oxygen over a prolonged period can lead to oxygen toxicity.
2. Oxygen toxicity can cause lung damage and respiratory distress.
3. To prevent oxygen toxicity, it is crucial to monitor and limit the duration and amount of oxygen administered.
4. Therefore, avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods is the most effective intervention to prevent oxygen toxicity.
Summary of other choices:
B: Administering a sedative does not address the root cause of oxygen toxicity and can mask symptoms.
C: Removing the nasal cannula at night can lead to hypoxia and is not a safe practice.
D: Running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity and is not a recognized intervention.
A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Occult blood in the stool
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Elevated urine specific gravity
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates increased concentration of urine, a sign of dehydration.
Step 2: In dehydration, the body conserves water, leading to concentrated urine.
Step 3: The child's symptoms (increased stools, liquid consistency, fever, vomiting) suggest dehydration.
Step 4: Other choices (A: occult blood, B: distention, D: hyperactive bowel sounds) are not specific to dehydration.
Summary: Elevated urine specific gravity is key as it directly reflects dehydration, unlike the other choices which are not specific indicators of dehydration.