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A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving intermittent IV fluids via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the clients plan of care?
- A. Assess the PICC infusion system systematically.
- B. Flush the line only before infusing medication.
- C. Use a sterile dressing for the catheter site every 7 days.
- D. Allow the catheter to remain uncapped when not in use.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the PICC infusion system systematically. This is essential to monitor for signs of infection, occlusion, or dislodgement of the catheter. Regular assessment can help identify any issues early and prevent complications.
Summary:
B: Flushing the line only before infusing medication is incorrect as regular flushing is necessary to maintain catheter patency.
C: Using a sterile dressing every 7 days is incorrect as the dressing should be changed according to facility protocol or if it becomes soiled or loose.
D: Allowing the catheter to remain uncapped when not in use is incorrect as it can increase the risk of contamination and infection.
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A nurse is assessing a client who recently had a myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings indicates that the client might be developing pulmonary edema? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive somnolence
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Pink frothy sputum
- D. Tachypnea
- E. Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: The correct answers are A, C, and D. Excessive somnolence (A) can indicate inadequate oxygenation due to pulmonary edema. Pink frothy sputum (C) is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, caused by fluid leaking into the lungs. Tachypnea (D) is the body's response to decreased oxygen levels in the blood, characteristic of pulmonary edema. Epistaxis (B) and urinary frequency (E) are not typically associated with pulmonary edema. In summary, the correct answers reflect respiratory distress and inadequate oxygenation, while the incorrect choices are unrelated symptoms.
A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to eat independently with utensils.
- B. Provide finger food at mealtime.
- C. Feed the client only pureed foods.
- D. Offer the client fluids only between meals.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide finger food at mealtime. This option is appropriate for a client with dementia as it promotes independence and encourages self-feeding, which can help maintain their dignity and autonomy. Finger foods are easy to handle and reduce the risk of frustration or confusion that may arise from using utensils. Encouraging self-feeding also helps stimulate cognitive function and maintain motor skills.
A: Encouraging the client to eat independently with utensils may be challenging and frustrating for someone with dementia.
C: Feeding the client only pureed foods may not be necessary if the client is able to eat regular food safely.
D: Offering fluids only between meals may lead to dehydration, especially for clients who may forget to ask for fluids when needed.
A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of right-sided heart failure?
- A. Crackles in the lungs
- B. Increased abdominal girth
- C. Pink frothy sputum
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased abdominal girth. In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to efficiently pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation, leading to fluid backup in the systemic circulation. This results in fluid retention, particularly in the abdomen, causing increased abdominal girth. Crackles in the lungs (choice A) are indicative of left-sided heart failure. Pink frothy sputum (choice C) is a sign of pulmonary edema, which is a manifestation of left-sided heart failure. Hypertension (choice D) is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving vancomycin intermittent IV bolus therapy for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following findings is an indication to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. The client reports ringing in the ears.
- B. The client is becoming flushed.
- C. The client reports increased thirst.
- D. The client has a decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The client is becoming flushed. Flushing is a common adverse effect of vancomycin, indicating a possible allergic reaction or infusion reaction. Flushing can be a sign of red man syndrome, a severe reaction to vancomycin. The nurse should monitor closely and report this finding to the healthcare provider.
Incorrect Answer Rationale:
A: The client reports ringing in the ears - this is a potential adverse effect of vancomycin, but not as critical as flushing.
C: The client reports increased thirst - this is not typically associated with vancomycin adverse effects.
D: The client has a decreased urine output - this may indicate nephrotoxicity, a known side effect of vancomycin, but flushing is more indicative of an immediate adverse reaction.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for phenytoin to treat a seizure disorder. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately to the provider?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Skin rash
- D. Mild nausea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skin rash. This is because phenytoin can cause severe and potentially life-threatening skin reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. These reactions can progress rapidly, so immediate medical attention is crucial. Drowsiness (A) is a common side effect of phenytoin but not typically an emergency. Gingival hyperplasia (B) and mild nausea (D) are common side effects that do not require immediate reporting.