A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Give cromolyn nebulized solution every 8 hr.
- B. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site once daily.
- D. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr. Postoperative pain management is crucial for a child recovering from surgery. By administering analgesics on a scheduled basis, the nurse ensures that the child's pain is effectively managed, promoting comfort and facilitating recovery. Cromolyn nebulized solution (choice A) is not indicated for pain management post-appendectomy. Applying a warm compress once daily (choice C) may not provide adequate pain relief. Offering small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery (choice D) is important for hydration but does not address pain management directly in the immediate postoperative period.
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Your patient has just returned from the OR following an arterial septal defect repair. You are reviewing your orders and question the fluid rate ordered. Your patient is 6 years old and weighs 50 pounds. Select the appropriate hourly maintenance fluid rate for your patient.
- A. 63 ml/hr
- B. 64 ml/hr
- C. 65 ml/hr
- D. 107 ml/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate hourly maintenance fluid rate for a 6-year-old patient weighing 50 pounds can be calculated using the Holliday-Segar method, which recommends 100 ml/kg/day for the first 10 kg of body weight, 50 ml/kg/day for the next 10 kg, and 20 ml/kg/day for each additional kg. Converting the patient's weight from pounds to kg (50 lbs / 2.2 = 22.73 kg), the calculation would be:
100 ml x 10 kg + 50 ml x 10 kg + 20 ml x 2.73 kg = 1000 ml + 500 ml + 54.6 ml = 1554.6 ml/day
To convert this to an hourly rate, divide by 24 hours: 1554.6 ml/day / 24 hours = 64.775 ml/hr, which rounds down to 63 ml/hr (Option A).
The other choices are incorrect because
What is the purpose of pediatric hospice?
- A. Provide pain relief so the child doesn't know they are dying
- B. Extend the dying process so the child and family can say goodbye
- C. Hasten the dying process to stop the suffering
- D. Support the highest quality of life possible for whatever time remains
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Support the highest quality of life possible for whatever time remains. Pediatric hospice aims to provide comprehensive care to children with life-limiting illnesses, focusing on enhancing their quality of life through physical, emotional, and spiritual support. This approach prioritizes symptom management, comfort, and dignity for the child, ensuring they live as fully as possible until the end. Other choices are incorrect because A does not acknowledge the child's awareness, B may not align with the child's wishes, and C goes against the ethical principles of hospice care.
When instructing the parents of a toddler with iron deficiency anemia about the importance of increasing iron in the toddler's diet, which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the parents to include in the toddler's diet?
- A. Pasta
- B. Vitamin D milk
- C. Dried fruits
- D. Green leafy vegetables
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dried fruits. Dried fruits are a good source of iron, which is essential for treating iron deficiency anemia in toddlers. They provide a concentrated amount of iron in a small serving size, making them convenient for toddlers. Pasta (A) does not contain significant amounts of iron. Vitamin D milk (B) is important for bone health but does not provide a substantial amount of iron. Green leafy vegetables (D) are a good source of iron, but they may be harder for toddlers to eat compared to dried fruits.
A 14-year-old was brought to the school nurse's office due to a reported suicide threat. Which one of the following findings puts the patient at the greatest risk for suicide completion?
- A. History of suicide attempt
- B. History of drug and alcohol use
- C. History of divorced parents
- D. Bisexual orientation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of suicide attempt. This finding puts the patient at the greatest risk for suicide completion because individuals with a history of suicide attempts are more likely to attempt suicide again. This indicates underlying mental health issues and distress, increasing the risk of completing suicide. Choice B is incorrect as drug and alcohol use is a risk factor but not as strong as a previous suicide attempt. Choices C and D are not direct risk factors for suicide completion.
A sign specific to red blood cell destruction (hemolytic) anemia is:
- A. Jaundice
- B. Pica
- C. Anorexia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jaundice is the correct answer for red blood cell destruction anemia because it results from the breakdown of red blood cells, causing an increase in bilirubin levels. Jaundice presents as yellowing of the skin and eyes. Pica (eating non-food items), anorexia (loss of appetite), and tachycardia (rapid heart rate) are not specific signs of hemolytic anemia. Jaundice is a key indicator due to the excess bilirubin released from the destruction of red blood cells.