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A nurse is planning the care of a patient with herpes zoster. What medication, if administered within the first 24 hours of the initial eruption, can arrest herpes zoster?
- A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- B. Azanthioprine (Imuran)
- C. Triamcinolone (Kenalog)
- D. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acyclovir, an antiviral, can halt herpes zoster progression if given within 24 hours of eruption. Prednisone, azathioprine, and triamcinolone are not used for herpes zoster treatment.
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A 30-year-old male patient has just returned from the operating room after having a flap done following a motorcycle accident. The patients wife asks the nurse about the major complications following this type of surgery. What would be the nurses best response?
- A. The major complication is when the patient develops chronic pain.
- B. The major complication is when the patient loses sensation in the flap.
- C. The major complication is when the pedicle tears loose and the flap dies.
- D. The major complication is when the blood supply fails and the tissue in the flap dies.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Flap necrosis due to failed blood supply is the primary complication, as it leads to tissue death. Pedicle tearing is less likely, and chronic pain or sensory loss are secondary concerns.
A patient has just been diagnosed with psoriasis and frequently has lesions around his right eye. What should the nurse teach the patient about topical corticosteroid use on these lesions?
- A. Cataract development is possible.
- B. The ointment is likely to cause weeping.
- C. Corticosteroid use is contraindicated on these lesions.
- D. The patient may develop glaucoma.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Repeated use of topical corticosteroids near the eyes can lead to cataract development. Weeping and glaucoma are not typical risks, and corticosteroids are not contraindicated for periorbital psoriasis.
A patient has just been told that he has malignant melanoma. The nurse caring for this patient should anticipate that the patient will undergo what treatment?
- A. Chemotherapy
- B. Immunotherapy
- C. Wide excision
- D. Radiation therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wide excision is the primary treatment for malignant melanoma to remove the lesion and assess staging. Chemotherapy, immunotherapy, and radiation are secondary or palliative options.
A school nurse has sent home four children who show evidence of pediculosis capitis. What is an important instruction the nurse should include in the note being sent home to parents?
- A. The childs scalp should be monitored for 48 to 72 hours before starting treatment.
- B. Nits may have to be manually removed from the childs hair shafts.
- C. The disease is self-limiting and symptoms will abate within 1 week.
- D. Efforts should be made to improve the childs level of hygiene.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Manual removal of nits is often necessary after medicated shampoo for pediculosis capitis. The condition is not self-limiting, requires prompt treatment, and is not caused by poor hygiene.
While performing an initial assessment of a patient admitted with appendicitis, the nurse observes an elevated blue-black lesion on the patients ear. The nurse knows that this lesion is consistent with what type of skin cancer?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Dermatofibroma
- D. Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Malignant melanoma often appears as a blue-black lesion with irregular colors and borders. Basal cell carcinoma is waxy with pearly borders, squamous cell carcinoma is scaly and may bleed, and dermatofibroma is a benign, firm nodule.