A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 350 mg orally. The available amoxicillin is 250 mg per 5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? How many mL of amoxicillin should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: 7
Rationale: The correct answer is 7 mL. To calculate this, first determine the amount of amoxicillin needed by dividing 350 mg by 250 mg/5 mL to get 7. Then, since 250 mg is in 5 mL, 350 mg is in 7 mL. Other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the correct dosage based on the given concentration of amoxicillin.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a new prescription for gabapentin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for? Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for gabapentin?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Hypertension
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Gabapentin is known to cause central nervous system side effects, such as drowsiness, dizziness, and fatigue. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of drowsiness as it can impact their daily activities and safety. Hypertension (B), diarrhea (C), and tachycardia (D) are not commonly associated with gabapentin use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for drowsiness as the most likely adverse effect.
A nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a patient who has seizures and a new prescription for phenytoin. Which statements by the patient indicate a need for further teaching? Which statement indicates a need for phenytoin teaching?
- A. I know that I cannot switch brands of this medication.
- B. I have made an appointment to see my dentist next week.
- C. I will notify my doctor before taking any other medications.
- D. I'll be glad when I can stop taking this medicine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I'll be glad when I can stop taking this medicine." This statement indicates a need for further teaching because phenytoin is typically a lifelong medication for managing seizures. Stopping it abruptly can lead to serious consequences such as increased risk of seizures. Therefore, the patient should be educated on the importance of adhering to the prescribed regimen.
Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of not switching brands of phenytoin, as different formulations may have varying levels of the active ingredient. Choice B is important for overall health but not directly related to phenytoin teaching. Choice C is also crucial as phenytoin can interact with other medications, so notifying the doctor is necessary.
In summary, choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin without medical supervision can be harmful. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address important aspects of managing phenytoin therapy.
A nurse is conducting a patient's history and physical examination. Which information should the nurse consider as subjective data? Which information is subjective data?
- A. Petechiae
- B. Nausea
- C. Cyanosis
- D. Fever
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data is information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, or beliefs. Nausea falls under this category as it is a symptom that the patient experiences and reports subjectively. Petechiae, cyanosis, and fever are objective data as they can be observed or measured directly. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin, cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen, and fever is an elevated body temperature, all of which can be confirmed through visual inspection or measurement. Therefore, choice B, nausea, is the correct answer as it relies on the patient's subjective experience.
A nurse is educating a group of nursing students about brain herniation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include as a potential treatment for brain herniation? Which intervention is a potential treatment for brain herniation?
- A. Hyperventilate the patient.
- B. Decrease sedation.
- C. Reduce the temperature in the room.
- D. Lower blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperventilate the patient. Hyperventilation helps to decrease the PaCO2 levels, leading to vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral blood flow, which can help reduce intracranial pressure associated with brain herniation. This intervention aims to improve cerebral perfusion and prevent further brain damage. Decreasing sedation (choice B) may be necessary to assess the patient's neurological status, but it does not directly address brain herniation. Reducing the room temperature (choice C) can help in managing fever, but it does not target brain herniation. Lowering blood pressure (choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not a primary treatment for brain herniation.
A nurse in a coronary care unit is admitting a patient who has had CPR following a cardiac arrest. The patient is receiving lidocaine IV at 2 mg/min. When the patient asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions? Why is the patient receiving lidocaine?
- A. Relieves pain.
- B. Slows intestinal motility.
- C. Dissolves blood clots.
- D. Prevents dysrhythmias.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient is receiving lidocaine to prevent dysrhythmias after experiencing a cardiac arrest. Lidocaine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug that stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane, reducing the likelihood of abnormal electrical activity and dysrhythmias. It does not relieve pain, slow intestinal motility, or dissolve blood clots. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it directly addresses the purpose of administering lidocaine in this specific clinical scenario.
Nokea