Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which drug should the nurse administer?
- A. Captopril (Capoten)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- D. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Spironolactone blocks the action of aldosterone. Chlorothiazide works on the distal tubules.
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An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
- B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Continue to monitor the fingers until color returns to normal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring is appropriate as the symptoms are consistent with Raynaud's phenomenon and should resolve with warming.
The parents of a 3-month-old ask why their baby will not have an operation to correct a ventricular septal defect (VSD). The nurse's best response is:
- A. It is always helpful to get a second opinion about any serious condition like this.
- B. Your baby's defect is small and will likely close on its own by 1 year of age.
- C. It is common for physicians to wait until an infant develops respiratory distress before they do the surgery.
- D. With a small defect like this, they wait until the child is 10 years old to do the surgery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Most small VSDs close spontaneously within the first year of life.
An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A 42-year-old female who describes her pain as a dull ache with numbness in her fingers
- B. A 49-year-old male reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration
- C. A 53-year-old female reports substernal pain that radiates to her abdomen
- D. A 58-year-old male describes his pain as an intense stabbing that spreads across his chest
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intense stabbing chest pain that spreads across the chest is highly suggestive of an acute cardiac event, such as a myocardial infarction, and requires immediate assessment.
A psychiatric referral is warranted in a preschool child with the following:
- A. Night terrors
- B. Separation anxiety
- C. Scared of ghosts
- D. Masturbation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Separation anxiety in a preschool child, especially if it is severe and persistent, may warrant a psychiatric referral to assess for anxiety disorders.
Clinical manifestations of haemophilia include:
- A. Bleeding following neonatal intramuscular injection
- B. Intracranial bleeding
- C. Gingival bleeding
- D. Menorrhagia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intracranial bleeding is a serious and potentially life-threatening manifestation of hemophilia, particularly in severe cases.