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A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
- A. 19 gtt/min
- B. 20 gtt/min
- C. 21 gtt/min
- D. 22 gtt/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.
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A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 10 mg
- B. 20 mg
- C. 30 mg
- D. 40 mg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.
A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 30 gtt/min
- B. 32 gtt/min
- C. 33 gtt/min
- D. 35 gtt/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 10 gtt/mL 50 mL · 15 min = 33.33, rounded to 33 gtt/min. This ensures proper delivery of the medication over the prescribed time. Choice A is incorrect because it does not factor in the precise calculation based on the given data. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate rate of infusion required. Choice D is incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation based on the drop factor and infusion parameters provided in the question.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?
- A. Gentamicin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Erythrocyte count
- B. Neutrophil count
- C. Lymphocyte count
- D. Thrombocyte count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.