Nokea
A nurse is preparing to assist with a bone marrow biopsy. Which anatomical site should the nurse anticipate will be used to obtain the specimen?
- A. Ribs
- B. Humerus
- C. Posterior iliac crest
- D. Long bones in the legs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Posterior iliac crest. A bone marrow biopsy is commonly performed at the posterior iliac crest because it provides easy access to the bone marrow. This site has a high concentration of red bone marrow, making it an ideal location for obtaining a bone marrow specimen. The iliac crest is also a flat and easily accessible surface, which allows for safe and efficient insertion of the biopsy needle. Ribs (A) are not typically used due to the risk of puncturing the lungs. The humerus (B) is not a common site for bone marrow biopsy. Long bones in the legs (D) are not typically used due to the difficulty in accessing the bone marrow at those sites.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an outpatient surgical procedure and reports taking aspirin 81 mg daily, including this morning. The nurse should identify that this places the client at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Uncontrolled bleeding
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Decreased renal perfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, increasing the risk of uncontrolled bleeding during surgical procedures. By taking aspirin, the client's blood clotting ability is impaired, leading to potential excessive bleeding during and after surgery. This can result in complications such as prolonged bleeding, hematoma formation, and delayed wound healing. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Uncontrolled bleeding.
Summary:
- B: Myocardial infarction is not directly related to taking aspirin; it is actually used to prevent heart attacks.
- C: Respiratory depression is not a common complication associated with aspirin use.
- D: Decreased renal perfusion is not a typical risk of taking aspirin; it primarily affects the cardiovascular system.
A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patient's care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact?
- A. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes.
- B. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%.
- C. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%.
- D. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patient's pre-illness level of health.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. This is because older age is a significant risk factor for poorer outcomes in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) due to factors such as frailty, comorbidities, and reduced tolerance to aggressive treatments. Older adults are less likely to tolerate intensive chemotherapy and have lower overall survival rates compared to younger patients.
Choice A is incorrect because early diagnosis alone does not guarantee good outcomes in AML, especially in older adults. Choice B is incorrect because the five-year survival rate for older adults with AML is much lower than 50%. Choice D is incorrect because while pre-illness health may influence survival rates, age is a more significant factor in predicting outcomes in older patients with AML.
Splenectomy is curative in:
- A. G6PD def.
- B. ITP
- C. thalassemia
- D. hereditary spherocytosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: hereditary spherocytosis. Splenectomy is curative in hereditary spherocytosis because the spleen is responsible for the destruction of the abnormal spherocytes in this condition. Removing the spleen eliminates the primary site of red blood cell destruction, leading to an improvement in anemia and other symptoms.
Incorrect choices:
A: Splenectomy is contraindicated in G6PD deficiency as it can worsen hemolysis by increasing the workload on other organs.
B: Splenectomy can be beneficial in ITP to increase platelet counts but is not curative as the underlying autoimmune process persists.
C: Splenectomy is not curative in thalassemia as it does not address the underlying genetic defect causing abnormal hemoglobin synthesis.
Which of the following best characterizes the function of ferroportin in iron metabolism?
- A. A form of storage iron in intestinal mucosal cells
- B. A transport protein in the plasma
- C. A receptor protein on the surface of erythroid progenitors
- D. Transmembrane iron exporter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ferroportin is a transmembrane iron exporter responsible for releasing iron from cells into the bloodstream. It is crucial in regulating systemic iron levels. Choice A is incorrect as storage iron is typically stored as ferritin. Choice B is incorrect as ferroportin is not found in the plasma but on cell membranes. Choice C is incorrect as erythroid progenitors do not directly interact with ferroportin. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it accurately describes the function of ferroportin in iron metabolism.
In iron deficiency anemia there is characteristically
- A. An atrophic gastritis
- B. A low mean corpuscular volume
- C. A reduced total iron binding capacity
- D. Megaloblastic changes in the bone marrow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A low mean corpuscular volume. In iron deficiency anemia, there is a decreased amount of iron available for hemoglobin synthesis, leading to smaller and paler red blood cells. This results in a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Atrophic gastritis (choice A) is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, not iron deficiency anemia. Choice C (reduced total iron binding capacity) is incorrect because in iron deficiency anemia, there is an increased total iron binding capacity due to the body's attempt to capture more iron. Megaloblastic changes in the bone marrow (choice D) are seen in megaloblastic anemia, not iron deficiency anemia.