Nokea
A nurse is preparing to perform a follow-up assessment on a client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia. The nurse should expect to find the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations?(Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Disorganized speech
- B. Bizarre behavior
- C. Impaired social interactions
- D. Hallucinations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chlorpromazine improves positive symptoms like speech , behavior , and hallucinations , less so negative symptoms.
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Which of the following is the indication for glucocorticoid prescribing?
- A. Cataract
- B. Prevention of respiratory distress
- C. Hypofunction of thyroid gland
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glucocorticoids are indicated to prevent respiratory distress, such as in preterm infants for lung maturation.
When recommending dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) to treat motion sickness, patients should be instructed to:
- A. Take the dimenhydrinate after they get nauseated
- B. Drink lots of water while taking the dimenhydrinate
- C. Take the dimenhydrinate 15 minutes before it is needed
- D. Double the dose if one tablet is not effective
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dimenhydrinate is most effective taken 15-30 minutes before motion to prevent nausea; post-nausea , hydration , or doubling are less optimal.
A nursing student is reviewing information about the Controlled Substances Act of 1970. The student would expect to find which of the following as being regulated for drugs classified as controlled substances? Select one that does not apply
- A. Manufacturing
- B. Elimination
- C. Distribution
- D. Dispensing the drug
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 regulates the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs classified as controlled substances. Elimination refers to the excretion of drugs from the body, a pharmacokinetic activity. The act does not address formulation of the drug.
Amphetamine should not be taken with.....
- A. Paracetamol
- B. Aspirin
- C. MAO inhibitors
- D. Benzimidazole
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amphetamines combined with MAO inhibitors can cause a hypertensive crisis due to excessive catecholamine accumulation, a well-known dangerous interaction.
A patient with Type 2 diabetes mellitus begins gaining weight after several months of therapy with an oral antidiabetic agent. A complete workup indicates edema and other signs and symptoms of heart failure. Which of the following antidiabetic drug or group was the most likely cause?
- A. Acarbose
- B. Biguanides
- C. Glitazones (thiazolidinediones, such as rosiglitazone)
- D. Metformin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glitazones like rosiglitazone can cause fluid retention and weight gain, increasing the risk of heart failure.