Nokea
A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the explanation of initial symptoms?
- A. Abdominal cramps and diarrhea
- B. Persistent cough and chest pain
- C. Flu-like symptoms and night sweats
- D. Severe fatigue and weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flu-like symptoms and night sweats. Initial symptoms of HIV infection often resemble flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and night sweats. This occurs because the virus is rapidly replicating in the body and the immune system is reacting to it. The other choices, abdominal cramps and diarrhea (A), persistent cough and chest pain (B), and severe fatigue and weight loss (D), are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection or other conditions. Therefore, the nurse should include flu-like symptoms and night sweats in the explanation of initial symptoms to accurately inform the client.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of essential hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings that is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Vertigo
- B. Fatigue
- C. Excessive thirst
- D. Frequent urination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vertigo. Essential hypertension can cause vertigo due to increased pressure in the blood vessels supplying the inner ear. Vertigo is a common symptom of hypertension. Fatigue (B) is a non-specific symptom seen in many conditions. Excessive thirst (C) and frequent urination (D) are more indicative of diabetes mellitus rather than essential hypertension.
A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with bleeding esophageal varices and has an esophagogastric balloon tamponade with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube to control the bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide frequent oral and nares care.
- B. Monitor the client's oxygen levels.
- C. Administer intravenous antibiotics.
- D. Remove the tube immediately after 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide frequent oral and nares care. This is important because the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube can cause discomfort and irritation to the oral and nasal mucosa, leading to potential complications such as infection or pressure ulcers. Providing frequent oral and nares care helps prevent these complications and ensures the client's comfort.
Choice B is incorrect because monitoring oxygen levels is not directly related to the care of a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube.
Choice C is incorrect because administering intravenous antibiotics is not a routine intervention for a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube unless there is a specific indication for infection.
Choice D is incorrect because the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube should not be removed immediately after 24 hours. The timing of removal should be determined based on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's orders.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and a new prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. White coating in the mouth
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Insomnia
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White coating in the mouth. This adverse effect can indicate oral thrush, a fungal infection common with inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone. The nurse should instruct the client to report this to the provider promptly for appropriate treatment. Increased heart rate (B) and insomnia (C) are common side effects of the medication but not usually serious enough to report immediately. Shortness of breath (D) is a symptom of poorly controlled asthma and should be addressed promptly but not considered an adverse effect of the medication in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving TPN. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor serum sodium levels daily.
- B. Check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hr.
- C. Administer the solution at room temperature.
- D. Discontinue abruptly if the client reports nausea.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hr. This is crucial because TPN can cause hyperglycemia due to its high glucose content. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps in detecting and managing hyperglycemia.
Incorrect answers:
A: Monitoring serum sodium levels is not directly related to TPN administration.
C: Administering the solution at room temperature is not necessary for TPN administration.
D: Discontinuing TPN abruptly can lead to serious complications; it should be gradually tapered off.
Overall, monitoring blood glucose levels is essential in TPN therapy to prevent complications related to hyperglycemia.
A nurse is admitting a client who has a serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL and initiates cardiac monitoring. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during the initial assessment?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle spasms
- D. Severe agitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargy. A serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia. In hypercalcemia, calcium affects the central nervous system, leading to lethargy, weakness, and confusion. Lethargy is a common early symptom of hypercalcemia. Hypertension is not typically associated with hypercalcemia. Muscle spasms are more common in hypocalcemia. Severe agitation is not a typical manifestation of hypercalcemia.