Nokea
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine cancer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness.
- B. Estrogen therapy will reverse vaginal dryness.
- C. Do not use tampons for 6 months.
- D. Avoid sexual activity for 1 year.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness.
Rationale: After a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, the client will experience menopausal symptoms due to the removal of the ovaries. Vaginal dryness and itching are common symptoms that can be managed with artificial lubrication. Estrogen therapy is contraindicated in this client due to the history of uterine cancer. Using tampons can increase the risk of infection post-surgery. Avoiding sexual activity for 1 year is not necessary unless advised by the healthcare provider.
You may also like to solve these questions
A rehabilitation nurse is caring for a client who has had a spinal cord injury that resulted in paraplegia. After a week on the unit, the nurse notes that the client is withdrawn and increasingly resistant to rehabilitative efforts by the staff. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings
- B. Establish a plan of care with the client that sets attainable goals
- C. Increase the frequency of physical therapy sessions
- D. Allow the client to set the schedule for rehabilitation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish a plan of care with the client that sets attainable goals. This is because involving the client in setting realistic goals can empower them and increase motivation for rehabilitation. By collaborating with the client, the nurse can address the client's needs and preferences, leading to a more personalized and effective rehabilitation plan. Encouraging the client to actively participate in their care promotes autonomy and fosters a sense of control over their situation.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings is important, but it may not directly address the need for a structured plan of care with attainable goals.
C: Increasing the frequency of physical therapy sessions may be overwhelming for the client and not address the underlying issue of lack of motivation.
D: Allowing the client to set the schedule for rehabilitation may not provide the structure and guidance needed for effective rehabilitation.
A nurse is assessing a client who reports numbness and pain in his right palm, index finger, and middle finger. The client reports working with a keyboard most of the time while at work. The nurse suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following tests should the nurse request that the client perform?
- A. Hold the wrist at a 90-degree flexion.
- B. Perform a straight leg raise test.
- C. Tap the wrist for tenderness.
- D. Hold the arm in an elevated position.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the wrist at a 90-degree flexion. This test, known as the Phalen's test, is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. By holding the wrist in a flexed position for about 60 seconds, the test can reproduce symptoms of numbness and tingling in the affected fingers. This occurs due to increased pressure on the median nerve, which is characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Performing a straight leg raise test is used to assess for sciatic nerve irritation in the lower back, not carpal tunnel syndrome.
C: Tapping the wrist for tenderness is not a specific test for carpal tunnel syndrome.
D: Holding the arm in an elevated position is not a recognized test for carpal tunnel syndrome and would not provide relevant information in this context.
A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic assesses a client suspected of having cataracts. What is an expected symptom?
- A. Eye pain
- B. Sudden vision loss
- C. Decreased ability to perceive colors
- D. Excessive tearing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased ability to perceive colors. Cataracts cause clouding of the eye's lens, leading to a decrease in the perception of colors. Eye pain (A) is not a typical symptom of cataracts. Sudden vision loss (B) is more commonly associated with conditions like retinal detachment. Excessive tearing (D) is not a prominent symptom of cataracts. Make sure to assess for other symptoms like blurred vision, sensitivity to light, and difficulty seeing at night.
A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the explanation of initial symptoms?
- A. Abdominal cramps and diarrhea
- B. Persistent cough and chest pain
- C. Flu-like symptoms and night sweats
- D. Severe fatigue and weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flu-like symptoms and night sweats. Initial symptoms of HIV infection often resemble flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and night sweats. This occurs because the virus is rapidly replicating in the body and the immune system is reacting to it. The other choices, abdominal cramps and diarrhea (A), persistent cough and chest pain (B), and severe fatigue and weight loss (D), are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection or other conditions. Therefore, the nurse should include flu-like symptoms and night sweats in the explanation of initial symptoms to accurately inform the client.
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who takes furosemide for hypertension. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.3 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, which is a potassium deficiency. A potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and can increase the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining the heart's electrical activity. Hypertension (A) is not directly related to low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (B) is the opposite of what the client is experiencing. Pulmonary edema (D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels.