Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The nurse reviews the provider's orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Carvedilol
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carvedilol. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms in clients with a history of asthma due to its potential bronchoconstrictive effects. Furosemide (A), Spironolactone (C), and Lisinopril (D) are commonly used in heart failure management and do not pose a significant risk for clients with asthma. It is crucial to avoid medications that can worsen respiratory function in clients with a history of asthma to prevent complications.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system and needs to be transported to the x-ray department. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube during transport.
- B. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times.
- C. Remove the chest tube for transport.
- D. Allow the client to carry the drainage system.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times. This is crucial because maintaining the drainage system below the chest level prevents backflow of air or fluid into the client's chest cavity, which can lead to complications like tension pneumothorax or fluid re-entering the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube can cause a build-up of pressure and should only be done in emergency situations. Removing the chest tube is unsafe and can lead to respiratory distress. Allowing the client to carry the drainage system can risk dislodging the tube or causing tension on the connections. Therefore, the best option is to keep the drainage system below the chest level to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications.
A nurse is admitting a client who has a serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL and initiates cardiac monitoring. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during the initial assessment?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle spasms
- D. Severe agitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargy. A serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia. In hypercalcemia, calcium affects the central nervous system, leading to lethargy, weakness, and confusion. Lethargy is a common early symptom of hypercalcemia. Hypertension is not typically associated with hypercalcemia. Muscle spasms are more common in hypocalcemia. Severe agitation is not a typical manifestation of hypercalcemia.
A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride (KCL) to a client who is receiving diuretic therapy. The nurse reviews the client's serum potassium level results and discovers the client's potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Give the ordered KCL as prescribed.
- B. Hold the KCL and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Administer potassium via IV push.
- D. Check the client's potassium level again in 1 hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give the ordered KCL as prescribed. The nurse should administer potassium chloride as prescribed because the client's potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Potassium chloride is indicated for clients with hypokalemia (low potassium levels), and the client's level falls within the normal range, so administering the ordered KCL is appropriate. Holding the KCL is unnecessary since the potassium level is not critically low. Administering potassium via IV push is not indicated as the client's potassium level is not critically low. Checking the client's potassium level again in 1 hour is unnecessary as the level is already within the normal range.
A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic assesses a client suspected of having cataracts. What is an expected symptom?
- A. Eye pain
- B. Sudden vision loss
- C. Decreased ability to perceive colors
- D. Excessive tearing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased ability to perceive colors. Cataracts cause clouding of the eye's lens, leading to a decrease in the perception of colors. Eye pain (A) is not a typical symptom of cataracts. Sudden vision loss (B) is more commonly associated with conditions like retinal detachment. Excessive tearing (D) is not a prominent symptom of cataracts. Make sure to assess for other symptoms like blurred vision, sensitivity to light, and difficulty seeing at night.
A nurse cares for a client on ethambutol therapy for tuberculosis. What should be monitored?
- A. Hearing loss
- B. Visual acuity
- C. Liver function
- D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Visual acuity. Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to visual disturbances. Monitoring visual acuity is crucial to detect any changes early.
Incorrect choices:
A: Hearing loss is associated with other medications for TB, not ethambutol.
C: Liver function is not typically affected by ethambutol.
D: Blood glucose is not directly impacted by ethambutol therapy.
In summary, monitoring visual acuity is essential due to the potential optic nerve toxicity of ethambutol, making it the most relevant parameter to monitor in this case.