A nurse is providing client/patient education to the mother of an 8-year-old child diagnosed with B-hemolytic streptococci infection (strep throat). The nurse emphasizes the importance of promptly starting and completing the entire course of antibiotics.
- A. alleviate painful swallowing to avoid complications of dehydration and malnutrition'
- B. prevent sinusitis or abscess formation on the pharyngeal or peri tonsillar areas'
- C. reduce the risk of anterior cervical lymphadenopathy'
- D. eliminate organisms that might initiate acute renal failure or rheumatic fever'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Completing the entire course of antibiotics for strep throat is crucial to eliminate the bacteria completely. Failure to do so may lead to potential complications like acute renal failure or rheumatic fever, which are serious systemic conditions associated with untreated strep infections. This is because streptococcal infections can trigger an immune response that can attack other parts of the body if not fully eradicated.
Choice A is incorrect because while completing the antibiotics may alleviate painful swallowing, the main emphasis should be on preventing systemic complications. Choice B is incorrect as sinusitis or abscess formation are not the primary concerns with strep throat. Choice C is incorrect as reducing anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is not the primary goal of antibiotic treatment for strep throat.
In summary, completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to eliminate the bacteria and prevent serious complications such as acute renal failure or rheumatic fever.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following physical manifestations of a client with anorexia nervosa best indicates compliance with the treatment plan of care?
- A. "A weekly weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb)"'
- B. "Daily bowel movements that are soft"'
- C. "Return of regular menstrual periods"'
- D. "Improvement of the oral mucosa"'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "A weekly weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb)". In anorexia nervosa, weight restoration is a key goal of treatment to address malnutrition and restore physiological functioning. A weekly weight gain of 1 kg indicates the client is consuming adequate nutrition and their body is responding appropriately to treatment. This physical manifestation suggests the client is compliant with the treatment plan.
Choice B, daily bowel movements that are soft, is not necessarily a direct indicator of compliance with the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa. While bowel movements can be influenced by dietary changes, they are not as specific or reliable as weight gain in assessing treatment compliance.
Choice C, return of regular menstrual periods, is a potential physical manifestation of improved health in anorexia nervosa, but it may not be the best indicator of compliance with the treatment plan, as it can be influenced by various factors.
Choice D, improvement of the oral mucosa, is important for
During the active phase of labor, the membranes rupture and the nurse notes green amniotic fluid. Which nursing action should be initiated immediately?
- A. Call the physician.
- B. Replace the soiled underpad.
- C. Test the fluid with pH (Nitrazine) paper.
- D. Assess fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess fetal heart rate. This is important because green amniotic fluid indicates meconium staining, which can be a sign of fetal distress. Assessing the fetal heart rate immediately will help determine the baby's well-being. Calling the physician (choice A) may be necessary but assessing the fetal heart rate should be the priority. Replacing the underpad (choice B) can wait until after assessing the fetal heart rate. Testing the fluid with pH paper (choice C) may confirm the presence of meconium but assessing the fetal heart rate is more urgent.
Which is the recommended treatment for moderate to severe lead poisoning?
- A. IV fluids
- B. Antiemetics
- C. Heavy metal antagonist
- D. Antibiotics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The heavy metal antagonist, edetate calcium disodium, is frequently the drug of choice for the removal of the lead toxin from the body. Chelating agents inactivate the toxicity of the lead and cause excretion through the urine. IV fluids, antiemetics, and antibiotics do not address the core issue of removing lead from the body.
Which assessment finding suggests thrombophlebitis in a postpartum client?
- A. These signs and symptoms are indications of pulmonary embolism.
- B. These signs and symptoms do not relate to thrombophlebitis. Dyspnea, tachypnea, and apprehension
- C. Chills, hypotension, and abdominal tenderness
- D. Positive Homan's sign, calf warmth, and pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a positive Homan's sign, calf warmth, and pain are classic signs of thrombophlebitis in a postpartum client. A positive Homan's sign indicates pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot, which can indicate a blood clot in the leg veins. Calf warmth and pain are also indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis.
Choices A and B are incorrect because they relate to pulmonary embolism, not thrombophlebitis. Choice C describes signs of sepsis or intra-abdominal pathology, not specifically thrombophlebitis.
In summary, the key indicators of thrombophlebitis in a postpartum client are a positive Homan's sign, calf warmth, and pain, making choice D the correct answer.
For a client in the second trimester of pregnancy, which assessment data support a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)?
- A. Hemoglobin 10.2 mg/dL and uterine tenderness
- B. Polyuria and weight loss of 3 pounds in the last month
- C. Blood pressure 168/110 and 3+ proteinuria
- D. Hematuria and blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood pressure 168/110 and 3+ proteinuria. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is characterized by high blood pressure (systolic ≥140 mmHg and/or diastolic ≥90 mmHg) and proteinuria. In this case, the blood pressure reading of 168/110 indicates hypertension, and 3+ proteinuria indicates significant protein in the urine, both of which are key diagnostic criteria for PIH.
A: Hemoglobin 10.2 mg/dL and uterine tenderness - These are not specific indicators of PIH.
B: Polyuria and weight loss of 3 pounds in the last month - These symptoms are not typically associated with PIH.
D: Hematuria and blood glucose of 160 mg/dL - Hematuria suggests blood in the urine, which is not a typical finding in PIH, and elevated blood glucose is more indicative of diabetes rather than PIH.
Therefore,