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A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I will eat foods that taste good instead of balancing my meals."
- B. "I will avoid having a snack before I go to bed each night."
- C. "I will have a cup of hot tea with each meal."
- D. "I will eliminate products that contain dairy from my diet."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will eliminate products that contain dairy from my diet." This is because hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Dairy products can be harder to digest and may exacerbate nausea. By eliminating dairy, the client can reduce the likelihood of triggering nausea and vomiting.
A: "I will eat foods that taste good instead of balancing my meals." - This statement does not address the dietary changes needed for hyperemesis gravidarum.
B: "I will avoid having a snack before I go to bed each night." - While avoiding snacks before bedtime can be a good practice for some, it does not specifically address the dietary needs of hyperemesis gravidarum.
C: "I will have a cup of hot tea with each meal." - Hot tea may not necessarily help with managing hyperemesis gravidarum symptoms and does not address the need for dietary modifications.
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Which of the following is a potential complication of neonatal hypothermia?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Respiratory distress syndrome
- C. Jaundice
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the above are potential complications of neonatal hypothermia. Hypothermia can lead to hypoglycemia, respiratory distress, and jaundice due to the infant's inability to regulate body temperature.
What is the recommended method of contraception for a woman who is breastfeeding?
- A. Combined oral contraceptives
- B. Depo-Provera injection
- C. Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
- D. Progestin-only pills
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Progestin-only pills. Progestin-only pills are recommended for breastfeeding women as they do not affect milk supply. These pills are safe to use during lactation and have minimal impact on the infant. Combined oral contraceptives (A) are not recommended due to potential negative effects on milk supply. Depo-Provera injection (B) may also decrease milk supply. Copper IUD (C) is generally safe but may cause heavier periods. Progestin-only pills (D) are the most suitable option for breastfeeding women due to their minimal impact on milk production and infant health.
The nurse is assessing the client 30 min later. How should the nurse interpret the findings? For each finding, click to specify whether the finding is unrelated to the diagnosis, an indication of potential improvement, or an indication of potential worsening condition.
- A. Fundus at level of umbilicus
- B. Cloudy urine
- C. Blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg
- D. Moderate lochia rubra
- E. Thready pulse
- F. Fundus firm to palpation
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Findings indicating improvement: Fundus at umbilicus, Moderate lochia rubra, Fundus firm to palpation Findings indicating worsening: Blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, Thready pulse Unrelated finding: Cloudy urine Clinical Implication: The nurse should urgently address the low blood pressure and thready pulse, as they indicate ongoing hemodynamic instability due to postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate interventions such as IV fluids, blood transfusion, and further uterotonic medications may be necessary.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation about findings to report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Bleeding gums
- B. Faintness upon rising
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Sweiling of the face
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Swelling of the face can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition during pregnancy that requires immediate medical attention. Other options like bleeding gums, faintness upon rising, and urinary frequency are common during pregnancy and not typically concerning unless severe.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hr postpartum following a vaginal birth. The nurse notes that the client has excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Massage the client's fundus.
- B. Administer oxytocin to the client.
- C. Empty the client’s bladder.
- D. Provide oxygen to the client via nonrebreather face mask.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to massage the client's fundus first. This helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control excessive bleeding, preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Massaging the fundus promotes the expulsion of clots and helps the uterus contract, decreasing the risk of further bleeding. Administering oxytocin (choice B) can be done after fundal massage to enhance uterine contractions. Emptying the client's bladder (choice C) can also aid in reducing uterine atony but is not the priority in this situation. Providing oxygen (choice D) is not directly related to controlling postpartum bleeding.