Nokea
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the right forearm. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching as a possible indication of venous insufficiency?
- A. Cold and numbness distal to the fistula site
- B. Pallor and numbness distal to the fistula site
- C. Redness and warmth at the fistula site
- D. Pain in the fistula site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor and numbness distal to the fistula site. This is indicative of venous insufficiency in a client with an arteriovenous fistula. Venous insufficiency occurs when there is inadequate venous return to the heart, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to the tissues. Pallor and numbness are signs of decreased blood flow, which can occur when the fistula is not functioning properly. Cold and numbness (choice A) may indicate arterial insufficiency, not venous. Redness and warmth (choice C) are signs of inflammation, not venous insufficiency. Pain in the fistula site (choice D) may be due to other reasons like infection or nerve compression, not necessarily venous insufficiency.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The nurse reviews the provider's orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Carvedilol
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carvedilol. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms in clients with a history of asthma due to its potential bronchoconstrictive effects. Furosemide (A), Spironolactone (C), and Lisinopril (D) are commonly used in heart failure management and do not pose a significant risk for clients with asthma. It is crucial to avoid medications that can worsen respiratory function in clients with a history of asthma to prevent complications.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is performing an admission assessment of a client who has COPD with emphysema. The client reports that he has a frequent productive cough and is short of breath. The nurse should anticipate which of the following assessment findings for this client?
- A. Fine crackles in the lungs
- B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest
- C. Increased tactile fremitus
- D. Fever and chills
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. In COPD with emphysema, there is air trapping leading to hyperinflation of the lungs, causing the chest to expand more in the front-to-back direction (increased anteroposterior diameter). This is known as barrel chest.
A: Fine crackles are not typically associated with COPD/emphysema, they are more common in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia.
C: Increased tactile fremitus is not typically seen in COPD/emphysema, it may be present in conditions like pneumonia.
D: Fever and chills are not typical findings in COPD/emphysema unless there is an infection present.
A nurse is preparing a client for a radiation treatment who is postoperative following a mastectomy. The nurse should inform the client to expect which of the following adverse effects from the treatment?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Fatigue
- D. Skin irritation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fatigue. Radiation treatment can cause fatigue as it affects healthy cells in addition to cancer cells, leading to increased tiredness. Hair loss (A) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, while nausea and vomiting (B) are typical side effects of chemotherapy or certain medications. Skin irritation (D) is a common side effect of radiation treatment, but fatigue is the primary adverse effect in this scenario due to its impact on overall energy levels.
A nurse is assessing a client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Excessive thrombosis and bleeding
- B. Clotting of the mucous membranes
- C. Increase in platelet count
- D. Excessive red blood cell count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Excessive thrombosis and bleeding. In DIC, there is a widespread activation of the clotting cascade leading to formation of microthrombi, causing excessive clotting. However, as the clotting factors are depleted, bleeding can occur. This results in a paradoxical situation of both thrombosis and bleeding. B is incorrect as clotting of mucous membranes is not specific to DIC. C is incorrect as platelet count is usually decreased in DIC due to consumption. D is incorrect as excessive red blood cell count is not a characteristic of DIC.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine cancer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness.
- B. Avoid sexual activity for the first 6 months.
- C. Use a menstrual pad for vaginal bleeding.
- D. Use a diaphragm for contraception.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness. The rationale for this is that after a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, there is a decrease in estrogen levels, leading to vaginal dryness and itching. Using artificial lubrication can help alleviate these symptoms and improve comfort.
Choice B is incorrect as there is no need to avoid sexual activity for 6 months unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as there should not be vaginal bleeding after a total abdominal hysterectomy. Choice D is incorrect as using a diaphragm for contraception is not recommended after a hysterectomy.