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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should avoid taking aspirin for headaches while on this medication.
- B. You should use a soft toothbrush to brush your teeth.
- C. You should avoid foods that are rich in vitamin K.
- D. You should avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so using a soft toothbrush can help prevent gum injury and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin, another blood-thinning medication, should generally be avoided while on Warfarin to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because clients on Warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods rather than avoid them completely. Choice D is unrelated to the medication and not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed Warfarin.
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The newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of androgen to the female client. The nurse manager asks for the rationale. What is the best response by the new nurse?
- A. My client wants to improve athletic performance
- B. My client has breast cancer
- C. My client has brain cancer
- D. My client is planning on sexual reassignment surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose androgen therapy in females is occasionally used as a palliative treatment for certain breast cancers, particularly hormone-sensitive types, where it suppresses estrogen-driven tumor growth, offering symptom relief in advanced stages. Using androgens for athletic performance enhancement, while possible due to their anabolic effects, isn't a clinical indication and is illegal in regulated settings. Brain cancer lacks evidence supporting androgen use, as it doesn't target neurological malignancies. Sexual reassignment involves testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in a clinical context typically align with cancer care, not transition protocols. The breast cancer rationale reflects a recognized, albeit niche, therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic properties to slow disease progression, making it the most defensible clinical justification in this scenario.
When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. You may need to take this medication for a long time.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Expect immediate relief of symptoms.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.
Assessing a patient after intravenous morphine administration, the nurse notes cold, clammy skin; a pulse of 40 beats/min; respirations of 10 breaths/min; and constricted pupils. Which medication will the patient likely need next?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Meloxicam
- C. Pentazocine
- D. Propoxyphene
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms—cold, clammy skin, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and constricted pupils—are classic signs of opioid overdose. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be administered immediately to reverse the life-threatening effects of morphine. Meloxicam, pentazocine, and propoxyphene are not appropriate in this situation. Nurses must recognize the signs of opioid toxicity and act quickly to administer naloxone, ensuring the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation are supported.
A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
- B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
- C. Expect a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid foods high in fiber.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.
What is the antidote for Warfarin?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Glucagon
- D. Vitamin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.