Nokea
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for promethazine tablets. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication can cause diarrhea
- B. The medication can cause increased salivation
- C. This medication can cause pupil constriction
- D. The medication can cause drowsiness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "The medication can cause drowsiness." This is the correct answer because promethazine is known to have sedative effects and can cause drowsiness as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands one of the primary side effects of the medication.
A: Incorrect. Promethazine typically does not cause diarrhea.
B: Incorrect. Promethazine does not commonly cause increased salivation.
C: Incorrect. Promethazine can cause pupil dilation rather than constriction.
Overall, choice D is the most appropriate as it aligns with the expected side effect profile of promethazine.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse who is caring for a preschooler should question a prescription for which of the following antibiotics?
- A. Azithromycin
- B. Tetracycline
- C. Cefuroxime
- D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tetracycline. Tetracycline is contraindicated in preschoolers due to its potential to cause permanent discoloration of teeth and inhibition of bone growth. Azithromycin (A) and Cefuroxime (C) are safe choices for preschoolers. Gentamicin (D) is generally used in newborns, not preschoolers.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription to receive a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Change the TPN infusion tubing once every 3 days
- B. Check the client's blood glucose level regularly
- C. Insert the peripheral IV catheter for administration
- D. Monitor the client's weight every 3 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the client's blood glucose level regularly. This is essential as TPN is a high-calorie, nutrient-dense solution that can increase the risk of hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps the nurse assess the client's response to TPN and adjust the infusion rate accordingly to prevent complications.
Option A is incorrect because changing the TPN infusion tubing once every 3 days is not a priority in this situation. Option C is incorrect as TPN should be administered through a central venous catheter, not a peripheral IV catheter. Option D is incorrect as monitoring the client's weight every 3 days is not as crucial as monitoring blood glucose levels when on TPN.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion for treatment of venous thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for in order to titrate the heparin dose?
- A. Platelet function assay
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Amylase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is a lab value used to monitor heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clot formation, so monitoring aPTT ensures the blood is at the appropriate level of anticoagulation. If aPTT is too low, there is a risk of clot formation, and if it is too high, there is a risk of bleeding. Platelet function assay (A) measures platelet function, not heparin effectiveness. INR (C) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Amylase (D) is a pancreatic enzyme, not relevant to heparin monitoring. Monitoring aPTT helps maintain the therapeutic range for heparin dosing.
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 8 mg IV intermittent bolus to a client. The amount available is morphine 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 0.8 mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 0.8 mL. To calculate the amount of morphine to administer, divide the desired dose (8 mg) by the concentration (10 mg/mL). 8 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.8 mL. The other choices are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information. A nurse must accurately calculate medication dosages to ensure patient safety.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam as sedation for an endoscopy, Which of the following antidotes should the nurse have on hand during the procedure?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Atropine
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Neostigmine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flumazenil. Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepines like diazepam, used for sedation. It works by competitively inhibiting benzodiazepine binding, reversing sedative effects. Naloxone (A) is for opioid overdose, Atropine (B) for bradycardia, and Neostigmine (D) for reversing neuromuscular blockade. No other choices provided. In summary, Flumazenil is the appropriate antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, making it the correct choice in this scenario.