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A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client prior to administering IV tobramycin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 137 mEq/L
- B. Hct 4.3%
- C. Hgb 15 g/dL
- D. Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL. Elevated creatinine levels indicate potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering nephrotoxic medications like tobramycin to prevent further kidney damage. Elevated creatinine levels can lead to drug accumulation, increasing the risk of toxicity.
Choice A (Sodium 137 mEq/L) is within normal range and not directly related to tobramycin administration. Choices B (Hct 4.3%) and C (Hgb 15 g/dL) are related to red blood cell levels and not specifically relevant to tobramycin administration. Therefore, they do not need immediate reporting.
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A nurse is teaching a client about oral contraceptive. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Abdominal pain is an expected adverse effect of oral contraceptives
- B. It can take up to 1 year to become pregnant after stopping an oral contraceptive
- C. Some herbal supplements can decrease the effectiveness of an oral contraceptive
- D. A pelvic examination is needed prior to starting an oral contraceptive
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Some herbal supplements can decrease the effectiveness of an oral contraceptive. The nurse should include this information in the teaching to ensure the client understands potential interactions. Herbal supplements like St. John's Wort can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by increasing their metabolism. This can lead to contraceptive failure and unintended pregnancy. Option A is incorrect because abdominal pain is not an expected adverse effect of oral contraceptives. Option B is incorrect as fertility typically returns quickly after stopping oral contraceptives, not taking up to a year. Option D is incorrect as a pelvic examination is not always necessary before starting oral contraceptives.
A nurse is planning to administer medication to an older adult client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Tilt the client's head back when administering the medications
- B. Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client
- C. Administer more than one pill to the client at a time
- D. Place the medications on the back of the client's tongue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client. This is the safest option for a client with dysphagia as it reduces the risk of choking or aspiration. Mixing medications with food can help make swallowing easier and safer for the client. Tilt the client's head back (A) can increase the risk of choking. Administering more than one pill at a time (C) can lead to swallowing difficulties. Placing medications on the back of the tongue (D) can trigger a gag reflex in clients with dysphagia.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. Upon analyzing the assessment findings, the nurse identifies that the client is at risk for Select... due to the Select...
- A. concurrent medication use
- B. recent illness
- C. activity level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: concurrent medication use. The nurse identifies the client is at risk for adverse drug interactions or side effects due to the potential interactions between medications. Recent illness (B) may impact the client's health but does not specifically relate to medication use. Activity level (C) is important but does not directly indicate medication risk. Without options D, E, F, and G, they cannot be considered as potential correct choices.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the administration of omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. You cannot take this medication with an antacid.
- B. You should reduce your intake of calcium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication before meals.
- D. You can take a second dose if symptoms persist up to 2 hours after the first dose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit gastric acid secretion. This timing ensures optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because omeprazole can be taken with antacids, but it is recommended to be taken separately. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to reduce calcium intake while taking omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect as taking a second dose without medical advice may lead to overdosing and adverse effects.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a respiratory infection and is receiving an antibiotic. Which of the following medications puts the client at risk for developing hearing loss?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Penicillin G
- D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gentamicin. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss. The medication affects the inner ear's hair cells, resulting in irreversible damage. Rifampin (A), Ciprofloxacin (B), and Penicillin G (C) are not associated with ototoxicity. In summary, Gentamicin (D) is the only medication in the choices that poses a risk for hearing loss due to its ototoxic effects on the inner ear.