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A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that slows down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia as an adverse effect. This occurs because atenolol blocks the action of adrenaline on the heart, causing the heart to beat slower. Hyperglycemia (A) is not a common adverse effect of atenolol; in fact, it may even lower blood sugar levels slightly. Tachycardia (B) and hypertension (C) are the opposite effects of atenolol, as it is used to treat high blood pressure and reduce heart rate. Therefore, these would not be expected adverse effects.
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A nurse is teaching a client with Addison's disease about its cause. What should the nurse say?
- A. It is caused by the overproduction of growth hormone.
- B. It is caused by the lack of production of aldosterone by the adrenal gland.
- C. It is caused by excess thyroid hormone.
- D. It is caused by overactive adrenal glands.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Addison's disease is caused by the lack of production of aldosterone by the adrenal gland. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance in the body. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough aldosterone, leading to symptoms like low blood pressure, weakness, and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because Addison's disease is not caused by the overproduction of growth hormone. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions excess thyroid hormone, which is not related to Addison's disease. Choice D is incorrect because Addison's disease is characterized by underactive, not overactive, adrenal glands.
A nurse is planning an educational program about basal cell carcinoma. Which of the following information should the nurse plan to include?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma has a low incidence of metastasis.
- B. Basal cell carcinoma often spreads to lymph nodes.
- C. Basal cell carcinoma is most common in young adults.
- D. Basal cell carcinoma is curable with chemotherapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basal cell carcinoma has a low incidence of metastasis. This should be included in the educational program because basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes. Metastasis is the spread of cancer from the original site to other parts of the body, and in the case of basal cell carcinoma, it tends to remain localized. This information is crucial for patients to understand the prognosis and treatment options.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Basal cell carcinoma often spreads to lymph nodes - This statement is incorrect as basal cell carcinoma typically does not spread to lymph nodes.
C: Basal cell carcinoma is most common in young adults - Basal cell carcinoma is more common in older individuals, typically over the age of 50.
D: Basal cell carcinoma is curable with chemotherapy - While chemotherapy may be a treatment option for some cases of basal cell carcinoma, it is not the primary treatment and not always curative.
A nurse is assessing a client for hypoxemia during an asthma attack. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Agitation
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agitation. During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the brain, causing agitation due to hypoxia. Cyanosis (A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, indicating severe hypoxemia. Hypotension (C) is not typically associated with hypoxemia in asthma. Dizziness (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperventilation rather than hypoxemia. In summary, agitation is the most likely manifestation of hypoxemia during an asthma attack due to decreased oxygen supply to the brain.
A nurse is admitting a client who has a serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL and initiates cardiac monitoring. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during the initial assessment?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle spasms
- D. Severe agitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargy. A serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia. In hypercalcemia, calcium affects the central nervous system, leading to lethargy, weakness, and confusion. Lethargy is a common early symptom of hypercalcemia. Hypertension is not typically associated with hypercalcemia. Muscle spasms are more common in hypocalcemia. Severe agitation is not a typical manifestation of hypercalcemia.
A nurse is reviewing the EKG strip of a client who has prolonged vomiting. Which of the following abnormalities on the client's EKG should the nurse interpret as a sign of hypokalemia?
- A. Abnormally prominent U wave
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Flattened P wave
- D. Prolonged PR interval
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abnormally prominent U wave. In hypokalemia, low potassium levels can lead to U wave prominence on an EKG. The U wave becomes more visible and prominent due to delayed repolarization of the Purkinje fibers. This is a classic EKG finding in hypokalemia. Tachycardia (choice B) is a non-specific finding and can be caused by various conditions. Flattened P wave (choice C) is seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval (choice D) is more indicative of first-degree heart block or other conduction abnormalities, not specifically hypokalemia.