Nokea
A nurse is teaching the staff about managed care. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session?
- A. Managed care insures full coverage of health care costs.
- B. Managed care only assumes the financial risk involved.
- C. Managed care allows providers to focus on illness care.
- D. Managed care causes providers to focus on prevention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Managed care describes health care systems in which the provider or the health care system receives a predetermined capitated (fixed amount) payment for each patient enrolled in the program. Therefore, the focus of care shifts from individual illness care to prevention, early intervention, and outpatient care.
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A client asks the nurse to explain what luteinizing hormone (LH) does in the body. The nurse explains which of the following?
- A. It accelerates the growth and maturation of an egg in your ovary.'
- B. It enhances the potential for the sperm to fertilize the mature egg.'
- C. It promotes the movement of the egg through the fallopian tube.'
- D. It stimulates the monthly release of a mature egg from your ovary.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: LH surge triggers ovulation, the release of a mature egg from the ovary.
The nurse is providing education to a patient at 16 weeks' gestation who is undecided about consenting to the quad screen. How can the nurse explain the purpose of the quad screen to the patient?
- A. It indicates the risk of the fetus for heart defects.
- B. It indicates the risk of the fetus for neural tube defects.
- C. It indicates the risk of the fetus for neural tube defects and chromosome abnormalities.
- D. It indicates the risk of the fetus for chromosome abnormalities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the quad screen is a prenatal screening test that assesses the risk of the fetus for neural tube defects and chromosome abnormalities. At 16 weeks' gestation, this test helps identify potential issues early on, allowing for further diagnostic testing and appropriate interventions if needed. Choice A is incorrect because the quad screen does not specifically target heart defects. Choice B is incorrect as the quad screen does not solely focus on neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect because the quad screen assesses both neural tube defects and chromosome abnormalities, not just chromosome abnormalities alone. Therefore, choice C is the most comprehensive and accurate explanation of the purpose of the quad screen for the patient at 16 weeks' gestation.
The doctor has ordered a contraction stress test. The nurse should interpret which of the following as a negative test?
- A. The fetal heart remains stable in relation to 3 contractions.
- B. The uterine contractions last longer than 90 seconds.
- C. The mother reports a pain level that is less than 5 on a 10-point scale.
- D. The baby moves spontaneously 3 times in 20 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A negative contraction stress test indicates that the fetal heart rate remains stable during contractions, suggesting no fetal distress.
Which technique would provide the best pain relief for a pregnant woman with an occiput posterior position?
- A. Neuromuscular disassociation
- B. Effleurage
- C. Psychoprophylaxis
- D. Sacral pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sacral pressure. This technique involves applying pressure to the sacrum to alleviate back pain associated with an occiput posterior position. The pressure helps relieve tension and discomfort in the lower back, providing effective pain relief for the pregnant woman.
A: Neuromuscular disassociation is not specific to addressing the pain associated with the occiput posterior position in pregnancy.
B: Effleurage is a gentle massage technique that may provide some relaxation but may not be as effective as sacral pressure for pain relief in this specific scenario.
C: Psychoprophylaxis is a method of preparing for childbirth through education and relaxation techniques, but it may not directly target the pain caused by the occiput posterior position.
In summary, sacral pressure is the most appropriate technique as it directly addresses the specific pain associated with the occiput posterior position in pregnancy, unlike the other choices.
A male baby is born with scant amounts of vernix caseosa in his axillae and groin, scant amounts of lanugo on his shoulders, testes in his scrotum, and a strong suck. The nurse would estimate that the baby is which of the following gestational ages?
- A. 22 weeks.
- B. 28 weeks.
- C. 32 weeks.
- D. 38 weeks.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: These characteristics (scant vernix, scant lanugo, descended testes, and strong suck) are typical of a full-term baby around 38 weeks.