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A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Dobutamine
- C. Mannitol
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce cerebral edema by drawing water out of brain tissue. This helps decrease intracranial pressure in clients with head injuries. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, not specifically for intracranial pressure. Dobutamine (B) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for cardiac support, not for intracranial pressure. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic medication and does not address intracranial pressure. In summary, Mannitol is the appropriate choice for managing increased intracranial pressure due to its osmotic diuretic properties.
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A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I plan to take this medication for 1 week.'
- B. I should take an antacid with each dose of this medication.'
- C. This medication may cause my blood pressure to increase.'
- D. I will have my liver function tested while I am taking this medication.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will have my liver function tested while I am taking this medication." This answer demonstrates understanding because isoniazid (INH) is known to potentially cause liver toxicity. Regular monitoring of liver function is essential to detect any adverse effects early. Option A is incorrect as INH treatment typically lasts for several months, not just 1 week. Option B is incorrect as antacids can decrease the absorption of INH. Option C is incorrect as INH does not typically cause an increase in blood pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Which of the following findings indicate potential improvement?
- A. Hgb 8.4 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL)
- B. Hct 42% (37% to 47%)
- C. WBC count 9
- D. Potassium 4.3 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium 4.3 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L). In heart failure exacerbation, potassium levels can be affected due to medications or fluid shifts. A potassium level within the normal range indicates electrolyte balance, which is crucial for cardiac function. Hemoglobin (Choice A) and hematocrit (Choice B) are indicators of oxygen-carrying capacity and volume status, not directly related to heart failure improvement. White blood cell count (Choice C) is not specific to heart failure exacerbation. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it reflects a positive change in electrolyte balance, essential for cardiac function.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a herniated disc and is scheduled for a peripheral nerve block. The client tells the nurse, 'I am afraid to have this procedure.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Are you afraid of needles that will be used during the procedure?'
- B. After this procedure, you will feel much better.'
- C. Tell me why you are scared to have this procedure.'
- D. Let's discuss your concerns about this procedure.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct as it acknowledges the client's fear and opens the door for a discussion about their concerns, allowing the nurse to address them. It shows empathy and promotes client-centered care. Option A focuses solely on needles, which may not address the client's overall fear. Option B dismisses the client's feelings without addressing their fear. Option C asks for the reason but may not actively engage in addressing the fear. Overall, option D is the best choice as it demonstrates active listening and a willingness to address the client's specific concerns.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute gout. The nurse should expect an increase in which of the following laboratory results?
- A. Chloride level
- B. Creatinine kinase
- C. Uric acid
- D. Intrinsic factor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Uric acid. In acute gout, there is an increase in uric acid levels due to the deposition of urate crystals in the joints, causing inflammation and pain. Elevated uric acid levels are a hallmark of gout.
A: Chloride level is not directly related to acute gout.
B: Creatinine kinase is a marker of muscle damage, not specific to gout.
D: Intrinsic factor is related to vitamin B12 absorption, not gout.
Therefore, the nurse should expect an increase in uric acid levels as the most appropriate laboratory result in a client with acute gout.
A nurse is assessing a client who has anorexia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of malnutrition?
- A. Dry skin
- B. Alopecia
- C. Increased salivation
- D. Dolichocephaly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry skin. Malnutrition can lead to a deficiency in essential nutrients like vitamins and minerals, causing skin to become dry and flaky. This occurs due to a lack of proper hydration and nourishment. Alopecia (B) is more commonly associated with conditions like stress or hormonal imbalances. Increased salivation (C) is not typically linked to malnutrition but can be seen in conditions like GERD. Dolichocephaly (D) refers to an elongated shape of the head and is not directly related to malnutrition. In summary, dry skin is a manifestation of malnutrition due to the lack of essential nutrients, while the other choices are more likely associated with different conditions or factors.