Nokea
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
- A. Cottage cheese-like discharge
- B. Yellow-green discharge
- C. Gray-white discharge
- D. Watery discharge with a fishy odor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.
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An adolescent patients history of skin hyperreactivity and inflammation has been attributed to atopic dermatitis. The nurse should recognize that this patient consequently faces an increased risk of what health problem?
- A. Bronchitis
- B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Asthma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Asthma. Atopic dermatitis is associated with a heightened immune response and inflammation, which can predispose individuals to developing asthma. Both conditions involve an overactive immune response and can coexist in patients due to shared genetic and environmental factors. Asthma commonly presents alongside atopic dermatitis in individuals with atopic tendencies. Bronchitis (choice A) is a respiratory condition caused by inflammation of the bronchial tubes and is not directly linked to atopic dermatitis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (choice B) and rheumatoid arthritis (choice C) are autoimmune diseases that primarily affect the joints and other organs, but they are not typically associated with atopic dermatitis.
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
- A. diuretic.
- B. tocolytic.
- C. anticonvulsant.
- D. antihypertensive.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.
Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
- A. Cardiomyopathy
- B. Mitral valve prolapse
- C. Rheumatic heart disease
- D. Congenital heart disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy.
Rationale:
1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus.
2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy.
3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition.
Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.
A public health nurse is teaching a health class for the male students at the local high school. The nurse is teaching the boys to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. What point would be appropriate to emphasize?
- A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer.
- B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
- C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
- D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. This is the most appropriate point to emphasize because early detection through regular self-examinations can lead to early treatment and a high survival rate. Testicular cancer has a very high cure rate, especially when detected and treated early. Emphasizing this point encourages boys to perform monthly self-exams, leading to early detection and better outcomes.
Explanation of other choices:
B: Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose - This is incorrect because testicular cancer is actually one of the more easily detectable cancers through self-examinations.
C: Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the leading cause of cancer deaths in males.
D: Testicular cancer is more common in older men - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.
A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching?
- A. Care of the cervical collar
- B. Technique for performing neck ROM exercises
- C. Home assessment of ABGs
- D. Techniques for restoring nerve function
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Care of the cervical collar
Rationale:
1. Care of the cervical collar is essential post-cervical diskectomy to ensure proper immobilization and support.
2. Proper care prevents complications and promotes healing.
3. It is a crucial aspect of discharge education to prevent injury and promote recovery.
Summary of other choices:
B: Technique for performing neck ROM exercises - Important for rehabilitation but not directly related to discharge education post-cervical diskectomy.
C: Home assessment of ABGs - Irrelevant to post-cervical diskectomy discharge education.
D: Techniques for restoring nerve function - Important for recovery but not a primary focus of discharge education.