Nokea
A nurse teaches a client with breast cancer about chemotherapy side effects. What statement indicates understanding?
- A. I'll call my doctor if I notice any unusual menstrual bleeding.
- B. I'll stop chemotherapy if I feel tired.
- C. Hair loss is always permanent.
- D. I don't need any follow-up tests after treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it shows the client understands the importance of monitoring for potential side effects like unusual menstrual bleeding, which can be a serious complication of chemotherapy. This statement reflects proactive involvement in self-care and prompt communication with healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because stopping chemotherapy without medical guidance can be harmful, hair loss may not always be permanent, and follow-up tests are essential for monitoring treatment effectiveness and potential complications.
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A nurse teaches a client about cervical polyps. What is an expected symptom?
- A. Pelvic pain
- B. Heavy menstrual bleeding
- C. Postcoital bleeding
- D. Urinary incontinence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Postcoital bleeding. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause postcoital bleeding due to contact with the polyp during intercourse. Pelvic pain, heavy menstrual bleeding, and urinary incontinence are not typical symptoms of cervical polyps. Pelvic pain may occur in other conditions like endometriosis. Heavy menstrual bleeding can be a symptom of fibroids or hormonal imbalances. Urinary incontinence is more commonly associated with pelvic floor disorders or urinary tract infections. Postcoital bleeding specifically points to cervical polyps as the likely cause.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a history of recurring calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase calcium intake
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium
- C. Drink 3 L of fluid every day
- D. Limit vitamin C intake
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drink 3 L of fluid every day. Adequate fluid intake helps to dilute urine, reducing the concentration of calcium and oxalate, which are the main components of kidney stones. This instruction can help prevent the formation of new stones. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) may actually be beneficial as it can bind with oxalate in the intestines, reducing its absorption and subsequent excretion in the urine. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is not directly related to preventing calcium oxalate stones. Limiting vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not necessary unless the client is taking excessive amounts of vitamin C supplements, which can increase oxalate levels.
A nurse is preparing dietary instructions for a client who has episodes of biliary colic from chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid foods high in fat.
- B. Avoid foods high in carbohydrates.
- C. Eat a high-protein, low-fat diet.
- D. Increase intake of high-fat foods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in fat. Biliary colic is caused by gallstones, and high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder contractions leading to pain. Therefore, advising the client to avoid foods high in fat can help prevent biliary colic episodes. Choice B is incorrect as carbohydrates do not directly affect biliary colic. Choice C is incorrect because while a high-protein, low-fat diet may be beneficial for some conditions, it is not specifically recommended for biliary colic. Choice D is incorrect as increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen symptoms.
A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action the nurse should take?
- A. Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Place the client on oxygen therapy
- D. Start an intravenous line
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. This is the priority action because inhalation injuries can be life-threatening and must be assessed immediately in burn patients. Burns to the face and chest increase the risk of inhalation injuries due to the proximity to the airway. Administering pain medication, placing the client on oxygen therapy, and starting an IV line are important interventions but inspecting the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries takes precedence in this situation to ensure the client's airway is not compromised.
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- B. Platelet count of 350,000/mm3
- C. CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. In HIV care, monitoring the CD4-T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the immune system's ability to fight infections. A low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system, increasing the client's susceptibility to opportunistic infections. This value guides treatment decisions, such as initiating antiretroviral therapy. The other options, while important, do not directly reflect the client's immune status in the context of HIV. Hemoglobin and platelet counts are relevant for assessing anemia and clotting function, respectively. White blood cell count is a general indicator of infection or inflammation. Prioritizing CD4-T-cell count ensures appropriate management of HIV and prevention of complications.