A nurse working in an outpatient clinic is planning a community education program about reproductive cancers. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as a possible indication of cervical cancer?
- A. Abnormal vaginal bleeding
- B. Frequent diarrhea
- C. Urinary hesitancy
- D. Unexplained weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abnormal vaginal bleeding. This is a possible indication of cervical cancer because it can be a symptom of cervical dysplasia or cervical cancer. Bleeding between periods, after intercourse, or post-menopausal bleeding may indicate cervical cancer. Frequent diarrhea (B), urinary hesitancy (C), and unexplained weight gain (D) are not typically associated with cervical cancer. Diarrhea and urinary hesitancy are more commonly linked to gastrointestinal or urinary issues, while unexplained weight gain may be indicative of hormonal imbalances or other health conditions unrelated to cervical cancer.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has moderate Alzheimer's disease. During weekly home visits, the nurse notices that the client's caregiver is tired, irritable, and impatient with the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend to the caregiver?
- A. Pursue local protective services.
- B. Consider respite care services.
- C. Take a nonprescription sleeping medication.
- D. Contact hospice services for end-of-life care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consider respite care services. Respite care provides temporary relief to caregivers, allowing them to take a break from their caregiving responsibilities. This is important for the caregiver's well-being and can prevent burnout. It also ensures the client receives continuous care. Pursuing local protective services (A) may escalate the situation unnecessarily. Taking nonprescription sleeping medication (C) is not a long-term solution and may have adverse effects. Contacting hospice services for end-of-life care (D) is premature and not appropriate for a client with moderate Alzheimer's disease.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit fluids to 1.5 L per day.
- B. Avoid extremely hot or cold temperatures.
- C. Avoid getting a flu vaccination.
- D. Limit alcohol intake to one drink per day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid extremely hot or cold temperatures. This instruction is crucial for a client recovering from a sickle cell crisis as extreme temperatures can trigger or worsen a sickle cell crisis. Hot temperatures can lead to dehydration and increase the risk of vaso-occlusive events, while cold temperatures can cause vasoconstriction, leading to further sickling of red blood cells. Limiting fluids (A) is incorrect as hydration is important to prevent complications. Avoiding a flu vaccination (C) is also incorrect as it is recommended to protect against infections that can trigger a crisis. Limiting alcohol intake (D) is not directly related to sickle cell crisis recovery.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and a history of wandering. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Move client to a double room.
- B. Use chemical restraints at bedtime.
- C. Use a bed alarm.
- D. Encourage participation in activities that provide excessive stimulation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use a bed alarm. This option promotes client safety by alerting the nurse when the client attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of wandering. Moving the client to a double room (A) does not address the wandering behavior. Using chemical restraints (B) is unethical and can lead to adverse effects. Encouraging excessive stimulation (D) can escalate agitation and wandering behavior.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has a new diagnosis of Graves' disease. The nurse should anticipate which of the following laboratory values to be elevated?
- A. Triiodothyronine
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Calcium
- D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Triiodothyronine. In Graves' disease, there is overproduction of thyroid hormones, including triiodothyronine (T3). Elevated T3 levels are characteristic due to increased thyroid hormone synthesis and release. Triiodothyronine is the active form of thyroid hormone, affecting metabolism, heart rate, and other body functions. Phosphorus (B), calcium (C), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (D) are not typically elevated in Graves' disease. Phosphorus and calcium levels may be normal or even decreased, as the disease primarily affects thyroid hormone levels. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is usually suppressed in Graves' disease due to the negative feedback mechanism of high thyroid hormone levels.
A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Dobutamine
- C. Mannitol
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce cerebral edema by drawing water out of brain tissue. This helps decrease intracranial pressure in clients with head injuries. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, not specifically for intracranial pressure. Dobutamine (B) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for cardiac support, not for intracranial pressure. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic medication and does not address intracranial pressure. In summary, Mannitol is the appropriate choice for managing increased intracranial pressure due to its osmotic diuretic properties.