Age Specific Patient Care Quizlet

Age Specific Patient Care Quizlet Related

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A nursing diagnosis for a patient with bulimia nervosa is Ineffective coping related to feelings of loneliness and isolation, as evidenced by use of overeating and self-induced vomiting to comfort self. Select the best outcome related to this diagnosis. Within 2 weeks, the patient will:

  • A. Appropriately express angry feelings.
  • B. Verbalize two positive things about self.
  • C. Verbalize the importance of eating a balanced diet.
  • D. Identify two alternative methods of coping with loneliness and isolation.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Identify two alternative methods of coping with loneliness and isolation.

Rationale:
1. The nursing diagnosis is Ineffective coping related to feelings of loneliness and isolation, indicating the patient struggles with coping mechanisms.
2. The desired outcome is for the patient to identify alternative coping methods, which directly addresses the ineffective coping issue.
3. By identifying two alternative methods, the patient demonstrates an understanding of healthier coping strategies.
4. This outcome focuses on addressing the root cause of the behavior (loneliness and isolation) rather than just surface-level expressions or behaviors.

Summary:
A: Appropriately expressing angry feelings does not directly address coping mechanisms related to loneliness and isolation.
B: Verbalizing positive things about oneself is beneficial but does not address the core issue of ineffective coping.
C: Verbalizing the importance of a balanced diet is important but does not directly address coping with loneliness and isolation.

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While auditing care plans for clients with eating disorders, the nurse realizes that a nursing diagnosis appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa as well as for a client with bulimia nervosa is:

  • A. ineffective denial.
  • B. adult failure to thrive.
  • C. chronic low self-esteem.
  • D. risk for imbalanced body temperature.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Chronic low self-esteem is appropriate for both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa clients as these disorders are often associated with poor body image and low self-worth. Clients with these disorders commonly struggle with feelings of inadequacy and self-criticism, leading to chronic low self-esteem. This nursing diagnosis addresses the underlying emotional issues that are prevalent in both anorexia and bulimia.

Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Ineffective denial is not appropriate as clients with these disorders are often aware of their condition and may even have distorted perceptions about their body image.
B: Adult failure to thrive is not suitable as this nursing diagnosis is typically used for older adults who are experiencing a decline in health and functioning, not specifically related to eating disorders.
D: Risk for imbalanced body temperature is not relevant as it does not address the psychological and emotional aspects that are central to anorexia and bulimia.

A nurse plans an educational program for staff of a home health agency specializing in care of the elderly. Which topic is the highest priority to include?

  • A. Pain assessment techniques for older adults
  • B. Psychosocial stimulation for those who live alone
  • C. Preparation of psychiatric advance directives in the elderly
  • D. Ways to manage disinhibition in elderly persons with dementia
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain assessment techniques for older adults. This is the highest priority as pain management is crucial in the care of the elderly to ensure their comfort and well-being. By assessing pain accurately, appropriate interventions can be implemented.

- Choice B (Psychosocial stimulation): While important, it is not as critical as addressing pain, which directly impacts the individual's physical comfort.
- Choice C (Psychiatric advance directives): Important for mental health planning but not as immediately essential as pain assessment in day-to-day care.
- Choice D (Managing disinhibition in dementia): Important but secondary to addressing pain, which has a more immediate impact on the individual's quality of life.

Prioritizing pain assessment ensures holistic care for elderly patients.

Which of the following is a priority for a nurse caring for a patient with anorexia nervosa during the refeeding phase?

  • A. Providing a high-calorie diet immediately to speed up weight gain.
  • B. Monitoring the patient closely for signs of refeeding syndrome.
  • C. Promoting the patient's independence in meal choices.
  • D. Encouraging exercise to improve physical health.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitoring the patient closely for signs of refeeding syndrome. Refeeding syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur when a malnourished individual is fed too quickly. Monitoring for signs such as electrolyte imbalances, fluid shifts, and organ dysfunction is crucial to prevent complications. Providing a high-calorie diet immediately (A) can exacerbate refeeding syndrome. Promoting independence in meal choices (C) may not be appropriate if the patient needs close monitoring. Encouraging exercise (D) can be harmful during the refeeding phase as the body needs time to recover and regain strength.

It has been discovered that all major anti-psychotic drugs

  • A. block the action of dopamine
  • B. facilitate the action of dopamine
  • C. increase levels of dopamine
  • D. decrease levels of dopamine
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Antipsychotics reduce psychotic symptoms by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain.

A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and approachable. During rounds the nurse notices the patient has his head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position. His lower jaw is thrust forward and he appears severely anxious. The patient has ______, and the nurse should ______.

  • A. a dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin)
  • B. tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage
  • C. waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs
  • D. akathisia"¦administer PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin).

1. Step: Identify the symptoms - The patient has head rotation, stiff fixed position, and lower jaw thrust forward, indicating dystonia.
2. Step: Understand dystonic reactions - Dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol.
3. Step: Choose appropriate treatment - Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat acute dystonic reactions.
4. Step: Administer the medication - IM benztropine is the correct route for acute treatment of dystonia.

Summary:
- Choice B (tardive dyskinesia) is incorrect because the symptoms described are acute and not consistent with the gradual onset of tardive dyskinesia.
- Choice C (waxy flexibility) is incorrect because it is a symptom of catatonia, not a side effect of ant

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