ATI Hematologic System Quizlet

ATI Hematologic System Quizlet Related

Review ATI Hematologic System Quizlet related questions and content

A nursing student is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia who is preparing to undergo induction therapy. In preparing a plan of care for this patient, the student should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnoses?

  • A. Activity Intolerance
  • B. Risk for Infection
  • C. Acute Confusion
  • D. Risk for Spiritual Distress
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for Infection. During induction therapy for acute myeloid leukemia, the patient's immune system is compromised, making them highly susceptible to infections. Therefore, the highest priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing and preventing infections. This includes monitoring for signs of infection, implementing proper infection control measures, educating the patient and family on infection prevention, and administering prophylactic antibiotics as needed.

Choice A (Activity Intolerance) may be a concern due to the patient's underlying condition and treatment, but preventing infections takes precedence as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Choice C (Acute Confusion) and Choice D (Risk for Spiritual Distress) are important considerations but do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's health and safety compared to the risk of infection.

You may also like to solve these questions

Which of the following is false regarding heparin?

  • A. Subcutaneous injection of heparin is avoided because of hematomas formation.
  • B. Heparin is usually stored in the mast cells.
  • C. Heparin binds to plasma anti thrombin III and inhibits activated thrombin.
  • D. Protamine sulfate can be used to counteract heparin overdose.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Subcutaneous injection of heparin is avoided because it can lead to hematomas due to its anticoagulant properties. Heparin is not stored in mast cells (B), but it is synthesized in mast cells. Heparin binds to plasma antithrombin III and inhibits activated thrombin (C). Protamine sulfate can be used to counteract heparin overdose by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects (D). Therefore, the statement that subcutaneous injection of heparin is avoided due to hematoma formation is the false statement among the options provided.

Which of the following is associated with normocytic normochromic anaemia?

  • A. Iron deficiency
  • B. Primaquine
  • C. Pregnancy
  • D. Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with increased blood volume and physiological hemodilution, leading to normocytic normochromic anemia. Iron deficiency (choice A) typically presents as microcytic hypochromic anemia. Primaquine (choice B) is associated with hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) is characterized by sickle-shaped red blood cells and is associated with hemolytic anemia, making it different from normocytic normochromic anemia.

Your patient with relapsed high-risk neuroblastoma returns to your care after travelling to an outside institution for [131]I-MIBG therapy. In the weeks following [131]I-MIBG therapy, what adverse events directly attributable to this therapy will the patient most likely encounter?

  • A. Myelosuppression requiring growth factor and blood product support
  • B. Severe mucositis
  • C. Hemorrhagic cystitis
  • D. Symptomatic hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Myelosuppression requiring growth factor and blood product support is the most likely adverse event following [131]I-MIBG therapy due to its impact on bone marrow. The therapy targets neuroblastoma cells, but can also affect normal bone marrow function, leading to myelosuppression. Growth factors and blood products are often needed to support hematopoiesis.

Summary of Incorrect Answers:
B: Severe mucositis: Not a common adverse event associated with [131]I-MIBG therapy, as it primarily affects the bone marrow.
C: Hemorrhagic cystitis: Not directly related to [131]I-MIBG therapy, which does not typically cause bladder toxicity.
D: Symptomatic hypothyroidism: While [131]I-MIBG therapy can affect thyroid function, symptomatic hypothyroidism is not the most likely adverse event following this therapy.

Which of the following is the most suitable anti malarial drug for pregnant women?

  • A. Atovaquone and proguanil
  • B. Quinine and doxycycline
  • C. Quinine and clindamycin
  • D. Primaquine
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine and clindamycin. Quinine is considered safe for use in pregnancy to treat malaria, as it has been used for many years without significant adverse effects. Clindamycin is also safe for use in pregnancy and can be used in combination with quinine to treat malaria. Atovaquone and proguanil (choice A) are not recommended for use in pregnancy due to limited safety data. Quinine and doxycycline (choice B) is not suitable for pregnant women as doxycycline is contraindicated during pregnancy. Primaquine (choice D) is not recommended for use during pregnancy as it can cause harm to the fetus.

Busulfan therapy lead to all except:

  • A. hyperpigmentation
  • B. pulm .Fibrosis
  • C. optic neuritis
  • D. BM suppression
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Optic neuritis. Busulfan therapy is known to cause adverse effects like hyperpigmentation, pulmonary fibrosis, and bone marrow suppression due to its cytotoxic nature. However, optic neuritis is not a common side effect associated with busulfan. Optic neuritis typically occurs due to inflammation of the optic nerve and is more commonly linked to conditions like multiple sclerosis. Therefore, in the context of busulfan therapy, optic neuritis is not a expected side effect, making it the correct answer.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.