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A patient asks about the benefits of time-lapse embryo monitoring in IVF. What should the nurse highlight?
- A. It guarantees successful implantation of embryos.
- B. It allows continuous observation of embryo development without disturbing the culture environment.
- C. It eliminates the need for hormone support during IVF.
- D. It shortens the time required for fertilization.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because time-lapse embryo monitoring in IVF allows continuous observation of embryo development without disturbing the culture environment. This is crucial as it provides real-time data on embryo growth and helps in selecting the healthiest embryos for transfer. Choice A is incorrect as implantation success is not guaranteed by monitoring alone. Choice C is incorrect as hormone support is still needed in IVF. Choice D is incorrect as time-lapse monitoring does not affect the fertilization process itself.
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The nurse in a genetic clinic interviews a couple and develops a pedigree chart. Which inheritance patterns does the pedigree chart portray?
- A. Autosomal recessive
- B. X-linked recessive
- C. Autosomal dominant
- D. X-linked dominant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Autosomal dominant. In an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, the trait is passed down from generation to generation, affecting both males and females equally. This is indicated by the presence of the trait in every generation of the pedigree chart. In contrast, autosomal recessive traits would skip generations and require both parents to be carriers. X-linked recessive traits mainly affect males and skip generations. X-linked dominant traits would be present in every generation but would affect more females than males.
A client's amniocentesis results were reported as 46, XY. Her obstetrician informed her at the time that everything 'looks good.' Shortly after birth the baby is diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following responses will explain this result?
- A. It is likely that the client received the wrong amniocentesis results.
- B. Cerebral palsy is not a genetic disease.
- C. The genes that cause cerebral palsy have not yet been discovered.
- D. The genetics lab failed to test for cerebral palsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral palsy is not typically caused by genetic factors.
A nurse is educating a patient about frozen embryo transfer (FET). What should be emphasized?
- A. FET requires daily hormone injections for success.
- B. FET involves transferring previously frozen embryos into the uterus.
- C. FET is only performed if natural conception is impossible.
- D. FET guarantees a successful pregnancy outcome.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FET involves transferring previously frozen embryos into the uterus. This is because FET is a process where frozen embryos from a previous IVF cycle are thawed and transferred into the uterus. The other choices are incorrect: A is false as hormone injections may not be required daily, C is false as FET can be done for various reasons beyond just natural conception issues, and D is false as success is not guaranteed in any fertility treatment.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
What is the significance of cervical mucus changes during the menstrual cycle?
- A. Cervical mucus changes confirm pregnancy.
- B. It becomes clear and stretchy during ovulation, indicating peak fertility.
- C. Cervical mucus changes have no relevance to fertility.
- D. It only occurs after ovulation and signals the end of fertility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It becomes clear and stretchy during ovulation, indicating peak fertility. Cervical mucus changes during the menstrual cycle are important as they reflect the hormonal changes that occur. During ovulation, cervical mucus becomes clear, watery, and stretchy, resembling egg whites. This type of mucus promotes sperm survival and motility, indicating the most fertile period for conception. The other choices are incorrect because cervical mucus changes do not confirm pregnancy (A), are indeed relevant to fertility (C), and do not only occur after ovulation but actually signal peak fertility during ovulation (D).