Nokea
A patient asks about the effectiveness of tracking ovulation using basal body temperature (BBT). What is the nurse's best response?
- A. BBT tracking is the most accurate method for predicting ovulation.
- B. BBT is used to confirm ovulation after it occurs.
- C. BBT tracking is only effective in women under 30 years old.
- D. BBT tracking eliminates the need for other fertility tests.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: BBT is used to confirm ovulation after it occurs. BBT tracking helps confirm ovulation by observing a slight increase in temperature after ovulation. It does not predict ovulation accurately. Choice A is incorrect because BBT is not the most accurate method for predicting ovulation. Choice C is incorrect as BBT tracking can be effective in women of all ages. Choice D is incorrect as BBT tracking is just one method and may not replace other fertility tests.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is counseling a couple about infertility. Which piece of assessment data may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant?
- A. The woman exercises three times a week for 1 hour.
- B. The couple each consumes a glass of wine each night.
- C. The couple has a sauna in their backyard.
- D. The male partner works on heavy machinery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Having a sauna in the backyard may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant due to the potential negative impact of excessive heat on sperm production and ovulation. Saunas can raise body temperature, which can be harmful to sperm and reduce fertility.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Regular exercise is generally beneficial for fertility and overall health, so this is unlikely to significantly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
B: Consuming a glass of wine each night in moderation is not likely to have a significant impact on fertility unless it leads to excessive alcohol consumption.
D: Working on heavy machinery may pose risks to male fertility due to potential exposure to harmful chemicals or radiation, but this choice doesn't directly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
What is the primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation?
- A. To assess sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- B. To determine the presence of infections in the reproductive tract.
- C. To measure hormone levels affecting sperm production.
- D. To identify potential genetic anomalies in sperm.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation is to assess sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial as these factors directly impact male fertility. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm present, motility relates to their ability to move effectively towards the egg, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm, which can affect their ability to fertilize an egg. Evaluating these parameters helps identify potential issues causing infertility. Other choices are incorrect as semen analysis primarily focuses on assessing sperm quality, not infections, hormone levels, or genetic anomalies in sperm.
What is the role of pelvic ultrasound in infertility evaluation?
- A. To evaluate ovarian reserve directly.
- B. To visualize uterine and ovarian structures.
- C. To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream.
- D. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, as pelvic ultrasound allows visualization of uterine and ovarian structures. This is essential in assessing conditions like fibroids, polyps, ovarian cysts, and structural abnormalities that may affect fertility. Ovarian reserve evaluation (A) involves separate tests like AMH levels. Hormone levels (C) are typically measured through blood tests. Genetic abnormalities in embryos (D) are usually identified through preimplantation genetic testing, not pelvic ultrasound.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. As the nurse is walking Lori to ultrasound, Lori mentions that over the past 12 hours she has experienced abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms to be associated with what condition?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms Lori is experiencing (abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain) are classic signs of moderate OHSS. The mechanism involves excessive response to the ovulation induction medication leading to enlarged ovaries and fluid accumulation in the abdomen. It is crucial to monitor patients on ovulation induction therapy for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Choice A: Ovulation - This is incorrect because the symptoms described are not typical of ovulation itself.
Choice B: Premenstrual syndrome - This is incorrect because the symptoms are not specific to premenstrual syndrome and are more indicative of a complication related to medication.
Choice D: Failed ovulation induction - This is incorrect because the symptoms suggest a response to the medication rather than a failure of ovulation.
An infertile man is being treated with Viagra (sildenafil citrate) for erectile dysfunction (ED). Which of the following is a contraindication for this medication?
- A. Preexisting diagnosis of herpes simplex 2.
- B. Nitroglycerin ingestion for angina pectoris.
- C. Retinal damage from type I diabetes mellitus.
- D. Postsurgical care for resection of the prostate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Viagra interacts dangerously with nitroglycerin, potentially causing severe hypotension.