Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies

Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies Related

Review Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies related questions and content

A patient at 10 weeks' gestation informs the nurse they are having vaginal bleeding and cramping. After completing a speculum examination, the health-care provider (HCP) informs the patient their cervix is open. What does the nurse anticipate the HCP will inform the patient they are experiencing?

  • A. complete abortion
  • B. incomplete abortion
  • C. inevitable abortion
  • D. spontaneous abortion
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: inevitable abortion. At 10 weeks' gestation, an open cervix with vaginal bleeding and cramping indicates an inevitable abortion, where the miscarriage is unavoidable and the process is ongoing. The open cervix suggests that the pregnancy is not viable and will not continue. The other options are incorrect because: A. Complete abortion refers to the expulsion of all products of conception, B. Incomplete abortion involves partial expulsion of products of conception, and D. Spontaneous abortion is a general term for any non-induced abortion.

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The nurse receives a phone call from a patient at 36 weeks' gestation who states they are having right upper quadrant pain that penetrates to the upper back. What priority information does the nurse need to obtain from the patient? Select 3 that apply.

  • A. onset and characteristics of the pain
  • B. any nausea or vomiting
  • C. any vaginal discharge
  • D. content of last meal
Correct Answer: A,B,C

Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and C. A is important to determine the onset and characteristics of the pain to assess for possible causes like pre-eclampsia. B is crucial to assess for signs of liver or gallbladder issues. C is important to rule out any potential infection like chorioamnionitis. D is not relevant to the presenting symptoms and does not provide information related to the patient's condition.

Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?

  • A. Rubella
  • B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • C. Syphilis
  • D. HIV
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts in newborns. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, leading to various congenital abnormalities. The other choices, B: CMV, C: Syphilis, and D: HIV, can also cause congenital abnormalities but are not specifically associated with bilateral cataracts in newborns. Rubella is the most likely cause in this scenario based on the clinical presentation.

A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called

  • A. total.
  • B. partial.
  • C. low-lying.
  • D. marginal.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: marginal. In placenta previa, when the placental edge just reaches the internal os, it is classified as marginal. This indicates that the placenta is close to, but not covering, the cervical os. Total previa covers the entire os, partial covers part of it, and low-lying indicates the placental edge is near the os but not reaching it. The key is to understand the specific location of the placental edge in relation to the internal os for each classification.

Which position increases cardiac output in the obstetrical client with cardiac disease?

  • A. Trendelenburg
  • B. Low semi-Fowler
  • C. Lateral positioning
  • D. Supine with legs elevated
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lateral positioning. This position increases cardiac output in obstetrical clients with cardiac disease by improving venous return to the heart, reducing pressure on the vena cava, and optimizing uteroplacental perfusion. The other choices are incorrect because Trendelenburg can worsen cardiac function by increasing venous return and intracardiac volume, low semi-Fowler does not optimize venous return and may decrease preload, and supine positioning with legs elevated can compress the vena cava, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential hypotension.

A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a

  • A. diuretic.
  • B. tocolytic.
  • C. anticonvulsant.
  • D. antihypertensive.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in preeclampsia to prevent seizures/eclampsia. It works by reducing neuromuscular transmission and excitability, making it an effective anticonvulsant. Diuretics (A) help remove excess fluid, tocolytics (B) inhibit uterine contractions, and antihypertensives (D) lower blood pressure, but they do not address the primary purpose of using magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia, which is to prevent seizures.

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