Nokea
What medication is not recommended for hypertension during pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?
- A. lisinopril
- B. nifedipine
- C. labetalol
- D. hydralazine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: lisinopril. Lisinopril is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects, particularly in the first trimester. It can cause fetal harm, including renal dysfunction and skull hypoplasia. Nifedipine, labetalol, and hydralazine are considered safe options for hypertension during pregnancy with no known teratogenic effects.
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As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer–Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that
- A. immediate birth is required.
- B. the patient should be transferred to the critical care unit for closer observation.
- C. RhoGAM should be administered.
- D. a tetanus shot should be administered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediate birth is required. The positive Kleihauer–Betke test indicates fetal-maternal hemorrhage, where fetal blood enters the maternal circulation. This can lead to fetal-maternal transfusion, causing fetal anemia. Immediate birth is necessary to assess and manage potential fetal distress, such as anemia and hypoxia, due to the trauma from the MVA.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Transferring to critical care unit is not the immediate priority. The focus should be on addressing the fetal distress.
C: RhoGAM is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent Rh sensitization, but it is not directly related to the positive Kleihauer–Betke test result.
D: Tetanus shot administration is important for tetanus prevention, but it is not the priority in this case where immediate birth is required due to fetal-maternal hemorrhage.
A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on which of the following?
- A. Hemorrhage is the primary concern.
- B. She will be unable to conceive in the future.
- C. Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
- D. A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhage is the primary concern. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube, which can lead to life-threatening internal bleeding. Nursing care focuses on monitoring for signs of hemorrhage, such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent serious complications.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: She will be unable to conceive in the future - This statement is not true as having an ectopic pregnancy does not necessarily impact future fertility.
C: Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment - Bed rest and analgesics are not the primary treatments for ectopic pregnancy, as surgical intervention is often necessary.
D: A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception - A D&C is not typically performed for ectopic pregnancy management, as it involves the removal of tissue from inside the uterus, not the fallopian
Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
- A. Epilepsy
- B. Bell's palsy
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnancy often leads to an improvement in rheumatoid arthritis due to the immunosuppressive state that occurs to prevent rejection of the fetus. This reduction in immune activity can alleviate symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, epilepsy, Bell's palsy, and SLE do not typically improve during pregnancy and may even worsen due to hormonal changes and stress on the body. Epilepsy can be challenging to manage during pregnancy, as seizures can potentially harm both the mother and the fetus. Bell's palsy may not improve and could be exacerbated by hormonal changes. SLE is a chronic autoimmune disease that can be unpredictable during pregnancy, with potential flares and complications for both the mother and the fetus.
A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called
- A. total.
- B. partial.
- C. low-lying.
- D. marginal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: marginal. In placenta previa, when the placental edge just reaches the internal os, it is classified as marginal. This indicates that the placenta is close to, but not covering, the cervical os. Total previa covers the entire os, partial covers part of it, and low-lying indicates the placental edge is near the os but not reaching it. The key is to understand the specific location of the placental edge in relation to the internal os for each classification.
The nurse receives a phone call from a patient at 36 weeks' gestation who states they are having right upper quadrant pain that penetrates to the upper back. What priority information does the nurse need to obtain from the patient? Select 3 that apply.
- A. onset and characteristics of the pain
- B. any nausea or vomiting
- C. any vaginal discharge
- D. content of last meal
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and C. A is important to determine the onset and characteristics of the pain to assess for possible causes like pre-eclampsia. B is crucial to assess for signs of liver or gallbladder issues. C is important to rule out any potential infection like chorioamnionitis. D is not relevant to the presenting symptoms and does not provide information related to the patient's condition.