ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2 Related

Review ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2 related questions and content

A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

  • A. They improve treatment adherence.
  • B. They reduce the duration of illness.
  • C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
  • D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

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In a patient with HIV infected with Mycobacterium avium complex from an indoor pool, which of the following medications is the recommended treatment for MAC?

  • A. Clarithromycin
  • B. Isoniazid (INH)
  • C. Rifabutin
  • D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Clarithromycin. Clarithromycin is one of the recommended medications for treating Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections in patients with HIV. It is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against MAC. Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat tuberculosis, not MAC. Rifabutin is another medication used in the treatment of MAC infections, but clarithromycin is preferred as a first-line agent. Azithromycin is also used in the treatment of MAC infections; however, clarithromycin is more commonly recommended due to its efficacy and safety profile.

Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?

  • A. Electroencephalogram (EEG) and ECG
  • B. Seizure symptoms and complete blood count (CBC)
  • C. Seizure symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG)
  • D. Seizure symptoms and EEG
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Seizures are most accurately diagnosed by EEG, which measures brain activity. Choice A is incorrect as ECG (electrocardiogram) measures heart activity, not brain activity. Choice B is incorrect as CBC (complete blood count) is a blood test and not used to diagnose seizures. Choice C is incorrect as an ECG (electrocardiogram) also measures heart activity, not brain activity, and is not the primary diagnostic tool for seizures.

A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

  • A. Adaptation
  • B. Pathologic calcification
  • C. Apoptosis
  • D. Necrosis
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

A patient is starting on a new oral contraceptive. What should the nurse emphasize about the timing of the medication?

  • A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels.
  • B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
  • C. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
  • D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning. Choice C is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential, but it should be at the same time each day. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to reach peak effectiveness, so it is important to emphasize the need for consistent timing.

A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most appropriate?

  • A. Administer a cough suppressant to reduce discomfort.
  • B. Encourage the client to lie flat to ease breathing.
  • C. Provide supplemental oxygen therapy.
  • D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with lung cancer experiencing dyspnea is to provide supplemental oxygen therapy. This intervention helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. Administering a cough suppressant (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dyspnea and can potentially depress the respiratory drive. Encouraging the client to lie flat (Choice B) can worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial in some situations, but when a client is experiencing dyspnea due to lung cancer, supplemental oxygen therapy is the priority to improve oxygen levels and alleviate breathing difficulty.

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