A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?
- A. Testosterone
- B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
- C. Estrogen
- D. Lactate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.
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What aspect of this woman's current health status would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. The woman has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
- B. The woman has asthma and uses inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators.
- C. The woman has a family history of breast cancer.
- D. The woman takes an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Women with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications. Oral contraceptives further increase this risk due to their potential effects on blood pressure, lipid metabolism, and clotting factors. Choice B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators do not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as a family history of breast cancer does not directly contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D is also incorrect as taking an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease does not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form initially?
- A. Interruption of blood flow to the brain
- B. Injury to the coronary artery endothelium
- C. Administration of statin medications
- D. Poor dietary modifications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to injury to the coronary artery endothelium, which triggers a cascade of events leading to plaque buildup. Choice A is incorrect because atherosclerotic plaques do not form due to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. Choice C is incorrect as statin medications are actually used to help lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of plaque formation. Choice D is incorrect as poor dietary modifications can contribute to atherosclerosis but are not the initial cause of plaque formation.
A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
- A. B cell deficiency
- B. T cell deficiency
- C. Combined immunodeficiency
- D. Complement deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?
- A. Reversible with cognitive therapy in infancy
- B. Transient and resolves in adulthood through physical therapy
- C. Manifests in adulthood after regular childhood activities
- D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.
What should the nurse assess in a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives?
- A. Adherence to the medication schedule
- B. The possibility of pregnancy
- C. The need for an increased dosage
- D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of non-adherence, potentially reducing the effectiveness of the contraceptives. Assessing the adherence to the schedule helps in determining if the medication is being taken correctly. The possibility of pregnancy (choice B) is less likely if the patient has been taking the contraceptives as prescribed. Increasing the dosage (choice C) without assessing adherence first can lead to unnecessary medication adjustments. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (choice D) comes after assessing adherence to the schedule.