Nokea
A patient is being prepared to receive a prescribed blood transfusion. What is the best way that the LPN can assist the health team to prevent a transfusion reaction?
- A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes.
- B. Warm blood to 98.6°F (37°C) before infusion.
- C. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) before the infusion.
- D. Assist the registered nurse (RN) to identify correctly the patient and the blood product.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assist the registered nurse (RN) to identify correctly the patient and the blood product. This is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions as it ensures the right blood is given to the right patient. Misidentification can lead to severe complications. Monitoring vital signs (A) is important but doesn't directly prevent transfusion reactions. Warming blood (B) may improve patient comfort but doesn't prevent reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (C) is not a standard pre-transfusion medication and should not be given without specific orders. Identifying the patient and blood product correctly is the best way to prevent transfusion reactions.
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A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
- A. Have you had a recent weight loss?
- B. Do you have any history of lung disease?
- C. Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?
- D. What is your dietary intake of meats and protein?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do you have any history of lung disease? A high hemoglobin and hematocrit can be indicative of chronic hypoxia, often seen in lung diseases like COPD. The nurse should ask about lung disease to explore the possibility of chronic hypoxia as the underlying cause. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the potential cause of elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels in this scenario.
You are consulting on a 10-year-old male with severe persistent neutropenia, a history of recurrent infections, and warts. The rest of the peripheral blood count is normal. His mother also has neutropenia. Bone marrow examination shows a hypercellular marrow and retained myeloid cells with vacuolated cytoplasm. There are no abnormalities in the red cells or platelet precursors. Cytogenetics are 46XY. You start granulocyte colony stimulating factor therapy and the neutrophil count increases. A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely to have caused this familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome?
- A. CXCR4
- B. ELANE
- C. GATA 2
- D. Mitochondrial DNA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CXCR4. In this case, the familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome with severe neutropenia, recurrent infections, and warts suggests WHIM syndrome. WHIM syndrome is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the CXCR4 gene, leading to impaired neutrophil trafficking. The symptoms and bone marrow findings in this patient align with WHIM syndrome. Choice B (ELANE) is associated with cyclic neutropenia, not WHIM syndrome. Choice C (GATA 2) is linked to familial myelodysplastic syndromes and acute myeloid leukemia, not WHIM syndrome. Choice D (Mitochondrial DNA) is not associated with WHIM syndrome. Therefore, the mutation in CXCR4 is the most likely cause of the familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome in this patient.
Peripheral bl. Picture is most useful in:
- A. NHL
- B. multiple myeloma
- C. myelodysplastic syndrome
- D. CML
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: CML. Peripheral blood picture is most useful in diagnosing CML due to the characteristic presence of increased mature and immature granulocytes, especially neutrophils, in the blood smear. This finding is known as a "left-shift" and is a hallmark of CML. In contrast, NHL (choice A) primarily involves lymphocytes, multiple myeloma (choice B) is characterized by abnormal plasma cells, and myelodysplastic syndrome (choice C) typically presents with dysplastic changes in blood cell precursors. Therefore, based on the specific blood cell findings, CML is the most likely diagnosis when observing a peripheral blood picture.
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin therapy with recombinant factor IX to treat hemophilia B. The client asks the nurse about the risk of disease transmission with recombinant factor IX as compared with plasma derived factor IX. The nurse should explain that the recombinant factor IX practically eliminates the risk for which of the following?
- A. HIV
- B. Cytomegalovirus
- C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- D. Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Recombinant factor IX is produced synthetically, not from human blood, hence no risk of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
2. HIV and cytomegalovirus can still be present in plasma-derived factor IX.
3. Anaphylaxis risk is not eliminated by using recombinant factor IX.
Incorrect about pernicious an:
- A. hyperchlorhydria
- B. premature graying of hair
- C. anti intrinsic factor antibody in 60% of pts.
- D. gastric polyp may occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperchlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to impaired absorption, not excess stomach acid. Premature graying of hair is unrelated. Presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibody and risk of gastric polyps are associated with pernicious anemia, but not hyperchlorhydria. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it does not align with the typical symptoms and characteristics of pernicious anemia.