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A patient is exhibiting classic sign of a hemorrhagic stroke. What report from the patient would be an indicator of this type of stroke?
- A. Numbness of an arm or leg
- B. Severe headache
- C. Double vision
- D. Dizziness and tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A severe headache is a classic sign of a hemorrhagic stroke. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures and causes bleeding. This bleeding can lead to increased pressure within the skull, resulting in a sudden and severe headache. Other symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke may include nausea, vomiting, sudden weakness or numbness on one side of the body, difficulty speaking or understanding speech, and loss of coordination. It is important to seek immediate medical attention if someone is experiencing symptoms of a stroke, including a severe headache, as prompt treatment is crucial in minimizing damage and improving outcomes.
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A patient with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for chest pain relief. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient regarding nitroglycerin administration?
- A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
- B. Chew the tablet before swallowing.
- C. Place the tablet under the tongue until it dissolves.
- D. Apply the tablet to the skin over the chest area.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are meant to be dissolved under the tongue to allow for rapid absorption into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue helps to bypass the first-pass metabolism in the liver, leading to a quicker onset of action and chest pain relief. Chewing, swallowing, or applying the tablet to the skin will result in decreased effectiveness or delayed onset of action. Therefore, it is important for the patient to be instructed to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve for optimal therapeutic benefit.
A pregnant woman presents with recurrent episodes of severe abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. On examination, an abdominal mass is palpable, and bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Threatened abortion
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Ovarian torsion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ovarian torsion is the most likely cause of the pregnant woman's symptoms as described. Ovarian torsion occurs when the ovary twists on its pedicle, leading to compromised blood flow to the ovary. This can cause severe abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. On examination, an abdominal mass may be palpable due to an enlarged, twisted ovary. Bowel sounds may be diminished due to the effect of the torsion on surrounding structures. Ectopic pregnancy, threatened abortion, and placenta previa are less likely to present with an abdominal mass and diminished bowel sounds.
A patient becomes emotional while discussing their recent diagnosis. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
- A. Ignore the patient's emotions and continue with the conversation.
- B. Acknowledge the patient's emotions and offer empathy and support.
- C. Tell the patient to stop being emotional and focus on the facts.
- D. Change the subject to avoid further emotional distress.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the patient's emotions and offering empathy and support is the most appropriate response in this situation. It is important for the nurse to show understanding and compassion towards the patient, especially when they are feeling emotional about a recent diagnosis. By acknowledging the patient's emotions, the nurse can create a supportive environment that facilitates open communication and helps the patient feel heard and valued. This approach can also help build trust between the patient and the nurse, leading to better outcomes in terms of patient care and overall well-being. Ignoring the patient's emotions, telling them to stop being emotional, or changing the subject may make the patient feel dismissed or isolated, which could negatively impact their mental and emotional state. Thus, offering empathy and support is key in helping the patient cope with their emotions and navigate through their diagnosis.
The patient has been ordered a regimen to treat a urinary tract infection and notifies the nurse that the patient's urine has turned an orange color. The nurse recognizes that the patient is most likely being treated with which drug?
- A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
- B. Darifenacin hydrobromide (Enablex)
- C. Bethanechol Cl (Urecholine))
- D. Phenazopyridine HCl (Pyridium)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenazopyridine HCl (Pyridium) is a medication commonly used to relieve the pain, burning, and discomfort associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs). One of the notable side effects of Phenazopyridine is the discoloration of urine, turning it a rusty-red or orange color. This color change is harmless and temporary, but it can be alarming to patients who are unaware of this side effect. Therefore, if a patient undergoing treatment for a UTI notices their urine has turned orange, it is most likely due to the administration of Phenazopyridine.
A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic for the management of edema. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with loop diuretic therapy?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypomagnesemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are potent diuretics commonly used to manage conditions like edema, heart failure, and hypertension. Loop diuretics work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle in the kidney, leading to increased diuresis. However, this mechanism of action can also lead to increased excretion of other electrolytes, such as magnesium.