Nokea
A patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to ___________ of the remaining liver cells.
- A. Metaplasia
- B. Organ atrophy
- C. Compensatory hyperplasia
- D. Physiologic hyperplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Compensatory hyperplasia is the process by which the remaining cells increase in number to adapt to the reduced size of the liver. In this case, after the removal of a lobe of the liver, the remaining cells undergo compensatory hyperplasia to compensate for the lost tissue. Metaplasia refers to the reversible change of one cell type to another, not an increase in cell number. Organ atrophy is the decrease in organ size due to cell shrinkage or loss, which is opposite to an increase in cell number seen in compensatory hyperplasia. Physiologic hyperplasia is the increase in cell number in response to a normal physiological demand, not specifically due to the removal of a portion of the organ.
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A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased size of the prostate gland
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased urine flow
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.
When reviewing the purpose/action of neurotransmitters as they interact with different receptors, the nursing instructor gives an example using acetylcholine. When acetylcholine is released at the sinoatrial node in the right atrium of the heart, it is:
- A. positively charged.
- B. inhibitory.
- C. overstimulated.
- D. dormant.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetylcholine acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter at the sinoatrial node. It slows down the heart rate by decreasing the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the heart's natural pacemaker. Neurotransmitters do not have a charge, so choice A is incorrect. Choice C is wrong as overstimulation is not a characteristic of acetylcholine at the sinoatrial node. Choice D is also incorrect because acetylcholine actively influences heart rate regulation when released at the sinoatrial node.
A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell size:
- A. Number
- B. Size
- C. Vacuoles
- D. Lipofuscin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Size. Muscular atrophy is characterized by a reduction in the size of muscle cells. This decrease in size can be due to various factors such as disuse, aging, or disease. Choice A, Number, is incorrect because muscular atrophy does not involve a decrease in the number of muscle cells but rather their size. Choice C, Vacuoles, is incorrect as vacuoles are not directly related to the definition of muscular atrophy. Choice D, Lipofuscin, is incorrect as lipofuscin is a pigment associated with aging and has no direct connection to the decrease in muscle cell size seen in muscular atrophy.
What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
- A. Oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly but not 100% foolproof.
- B. Oral contraceptives may take some time to reach full effectiveness after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions that may reduce contraceptive efficacy. It is crucial for patients to be aware of this to consider additional contraceptive measures when prescribed antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is also incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?
- A. Zoster vaccine
- B. Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine
- C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
- D. Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.