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A patient is hospitalized with active tuberculosis. The patient is receiving antitubercular drug therapy and is not responding to the medications. What do you suspect the patient is suffering from?
- A. Human immunodeficiency virus
- B. Drug-resistant tuberculosis
- C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
- D. Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient with active tuberculosis is not responding to antitubercular drug therapy, drug-resistant tuberculosis should be suspected. Drug-resistant tuberculosis occurs when the bacteria causing tuberculosis become resistant to the medications being used. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario described does not align with HIV infection, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
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A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Hematocrit of 39%
- C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
- D. AST level of 10 Unit/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.
A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?
- A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
- B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
- D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.
During a late-night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which component of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action?
- A. Cerebral cortex
- B. Basal ganglia
- C. Brainstem
- D. Cerebellum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex, particularly the motor cortex, is responsible for the voluntary control of precise movements such as turning a page. The cerebral cortex plays a crucial role in the highest level of control of motor functions, including those of the arm and hand. Choice B, Basal ganglia, is more involved in motor planning and coordination, while choice C, Brainstem, is responsible for basic life functions and reflexes. Choice D, Cerebellum, is primarily involved in coordination, precision, and accurate timing of movements, rather than the highest level of control for specific actions like page-turning.
A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:
- A. A normal leukocyte count
- B. A high leukocyte count
- C. A low leukocyte count
- D. Another term for leukopenia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.
A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for the treatment of infertility. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse's teaching?
- A. This drug induces ovulation by stimulating gonadotropins.
- B. This drug induces ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- C. This drug suppresses ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- D. This drug increases progesterone levels, which maintains pregnancy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the nurse's teaching is that clomiphene induces ovulation by stimulating the release of gonadotropins, which in turn stimulate the ovaries. Choice B is incorrect because clomiphene does not induce ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice C is also incorrect as clomiphene does not suppress ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice D is inaccurate as clomiphene does not directly increase progesterone levels to maintain pregnancy.