ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank Related

Review ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank related questions and content

A patient with a diagnosis of renal failure is being treated with epoetin alfa (Epogen). Frequent assessment of which of the following laboratory values should be prioritized before and during treatment?

  • A. AST
  • B. C-reactive protein
  • C. CBC
  • D. ALT
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is AST. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure. During treatment with epoetin alfa, it is crucial to monitor AST levels as this medication can potentially lead to liver toxicity. Assessing AST levels before and throughout treatment helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. C-reactive protein is not specifically related to the use of epoetin alfa in renal failure. While CBC (Complete Blood Count) monitoring is essential during treatment with epoetin alfa to evaluate the response to therapy, prioritizing AST assessment is more critical due to the potential for liver toxicity. ALT monitoring is also important but AST is prioritized in this scenario.

You may also like to solve these questions

A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?

  • A. History of hypertension
  • B. Use of nitrates
  • C. Use of antihypertensive medications
  • D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.

What is responsible for initiating clonal selection?

  • A. B cells
  • B. T cells
  • C. Antigens
  • D. Lymphocytes
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Antigens are the correct answer as they are the molecules that trigger the immune response by binding to specific B or T cells. This binding activates these cells, leading to their proliferation and differentiation to fight off the antigen. B cells and T cells are the responders to antigens, not the initiators of clonal selection. Lymphocytes is a broad term encompassing both B and T cells, so it is not the specific factor responsible for initiating clonal selection.

In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

  • A. Type 1 diabetes
  • B. Mumps
  • C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
  • D. Testicular trauma
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

A patient is hospitalized with active tuberculosis. The patient is receiving antitubercular drug therapy and is not responding to the medications. What do you suspect the patient is suffering from?

  • A. Human immunodeficiency virus
  • B. Drug-resistant tuberculosis
  • C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
  • D. Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with active tuberculosis is not responding to antitubercular drug therapy, drug-resistant tuberculosis should be suspected. Drug-resistant tuberculosis occurs when the bacteria causing tuberculosis become resistant to the medications being used. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario described does not align with HIV infection, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

  • A. A normal leukocyte count
  • B. A high leukocyte count
  • C. A low leukocyte count
  • D. Another term for leukopenia
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.