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A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?
- A. The patient is allergic to shellfish.
- B. The patient has a pacemaker.
- C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia.
- D. The patient takes antipsychotic medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has a pacemaker. A pacemaker is a contraindication to MRI scanning due to the interference with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner. This interference can potentially deactivate the pacemaker, putting the patient at risk. Patients with cardiac implantable electronic devices (CIED) are at risk for inappropriate device therapy, device heating/movement, and arrhythmia during MRI. This necessitates special precautions such as scheduling in a CIED blocked slot or having electrophysiology nurse or technician support. It is important to ensure that the patient's pacemaker is MRI conditional before proceeding with the scan. The other choices, such as being allergic to shellfish, suffering from claustrophobia, or taking antipsychotic medication, are not direct contraindications to undergoing an MRI scan for suspected lung cancer.
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During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?
- A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
- B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
- C. Clonidine (Catapres)
- D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.
A client is brought into the emergency room where the physician suspects that he has cardiac tamponade. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse would expect to see which of the following signs or symptoms in this client?
- A. Fever, fatigue, malaise
- B. Hypotension and distended neck veins
- C. Cough and hemoptysis
- D. Numbness and tingling in the extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac tamponade occurs when fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardium, preventing the heart from contracting properly. This leads to decreased cardiac output and is considered a medical emergency. Classic signs of cardiac tamponade include hypotension (low blood pressure) and distended neck veins due to the increased pressure around the heart. These signs result from the compromised ability of the heart to pump effectively. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with cardiac tamponade. Fever, fatigue, and malaise are non-specific symptoms that can be seen in various conditions. Cough and hemoptysis are more commonly associated with respiratory conditions, while numbness and tingling in the extremities are neurological symptoms not typically seen in cardiac tamponade.
A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?
- A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
- B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
- C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (Choice A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (Choice B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (Choice C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.
When administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30-day-old infant, which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?
- A. Gluteus maximus
- B. Gluteus minimus
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Vastus medialis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When administering medications to infants, it is common to use the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh for injections. The preferred site is the junction of the upper and middle thirds of the vastus lateralis muscle. This area provides a good muscle mass for the injection and minimizes the risk of hitting nerves or blood vessels. The gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus are not typically used for infant injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The vastus medialis is not as commonly used as the vastus lateralis for infant injections.
A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
- A. Slow, deep respirations
- B. Stridor
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Air hunger
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.