A patient needs to take 1 g PO of cefadroxil. The drug comes in 500-mg tablets. How many tablets should the patient take?
- A. 0.5 tablet
- B. 1 tablet
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 3 tablets
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Convert 1 g to mg by multiplying 1 g times 1000 mg. There are 500 mg in each tablet. Dividing the 1000-mg prescribed dosage by the 500-mg available dosage, the answer is 2 tablets.
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Sitagliptin has been approved for:
- A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
- B. Combination therapy with metformin
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sitagliptin is approved for monotherapy and with metformin , offering flexible type 2 diabetes management.
A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
- A. Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
- B. Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
- C. Delayed metabolism of the prodrug irinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
- D. Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: UGT1A1 mutations slow SN-38 inactivation, raising neutropenia risk , not affecting efficacy or activation .
Alpha-beta blockers are especially effective to treat hypertension for which ethnic group?
- A. White
- B. Asian
- C. African American
- D. Native American
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alpha-beta blockers are particularly effective in African Americans due to their dual mechanism.
The nurse explains the Drug Enforcement Agencys (DEAs) schedule of controlled substances to the nursing assistant who asks, Do you ever get a prescription for Schedule I medications? What is the nurses best response?
- A. Schedule I medications have no medical use so they are not prescribed.
- B. Schedule I medications have the lowest risk for abuse and do not require a prescription.
- C. Schedule I medications are only prescribed in monitored units for patient safety.
- D. Schedule I medications are found in antitussives and antidiarrheals sold over the counter.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schedule I medications have no medical use and are never prescribed. Schedule V medications have the lowest risk for abuse and are found mostly in antitussives and antidiarrheals but they are not sold over the counter.
Which medication route provides the most rapid onset of a medication, but also poses the greatest risk of adverse effects?
- A. Intradermal
- B. Subcutaneous (subcut)
- C. Intramuscular (IM)
- D. Intravenous (IV)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: IV medications are delivered directly into the bloodstream and avoid the first pass effect of the liver. Intradermal, subcut, and IM administration have a slower absorption rate.
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