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A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Vestibular function tests demonstrate unilateral weakness. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Vestibular neuritis
- B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
- C. Ménière's disease
- D. Acoustic neuroma Ophthalmology
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours with nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus, along with unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests, is most consistent with vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is characterized by inflammation of the vestibular nerve leading to sudden onset vertigo that can last for hours to days. It is often associated with nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests indicates dysfunction of one vestibular system. Differential diagnosis for this type of presentation includes other conditions such as Meniere's disease, BPPV, and acoustic neuroma. However, the combination of symptoms and unilateral vestibular weakness makes vestibular neuritis the most likely diagnosis in this case.
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The physician prescribes a treatment plan for patient Mila. Nurse Victor understands that the initial treatment goal is which of the following?
- A. Prevent infection
- B. Correct hypoxia
- C. Correct metabolic acidosis
- D. Increase myocardial oxygen supply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The initial treatment goal for a patient like Mila is often focused on preventing infection. Infection prevention is a basic and essential step in patient care, especially for someone who may be at risk due to their medical condition or treatment plan. By preventing infection, healthcare providers can help ensure the patient's safety and promote successful outcomes for the overall treatment plan. Correcting hypoxia, metabolic acidosis, and increasing myocardial oxygen supply may be important goals as well, but preventing infection is usually prioritized as it can have serious consequences if not addressed promptly.
The young mother wanted to know about the motor development APPROPRIATE in a preschooler. Which of the following statements NOT true?
- A. "He can tie shoe lace"
- B. "He can alternate feet when climbing"
- C. "He has not developed good postures"
- D. "He can hop two or more times"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement that the preschooler can alternate feet when climbing is not true. Typically, preschoolers at this age group are still developing their coordination and may not have mastered the skill of alternating feet while climbing. It is more common for them to use one foot after the other while climbing. This skill usually requires more advanced motor development and coordination, which may come later in the preschool years.
A woman in active labor requests hydrotherapy for pain relief. What is the nurse's priority action before initiating hydrotherapy?
- A. Obtain informed consent from the mother.
- B. Ensure that the labor room is equipped with a hydrotherapy tub.
- C. Assess the maternal and fetal conditions for eligibility.
- D. Review the mother's medical history for contraindications.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Before initiating hydrotherapy for pain relief during labor, the nurse's priority action should be to assess the maternal and fetal conditions to determine if the mother is eligible for this form of pain management. It is essential to ensure that hydrotherapy is safe and appropriate for the specific situation. Assessing the maternal condition includes evaluating factors such as the stage of labor, maternal and fetal well-being, and any medical conditions that could impact the use of hydrotherapy. This assessment helps to identify any contraindications or risks that may affect the mother and baby during hydrotherapy. By conducting a thorough assessment, the nurse can make an informed decision about whether hydrotherapy is suitable for the woman in labor.
Which of the following is a common complication of untreated gonorrhea or chlamydia infection in women?
- A. Cervical dysplasia
- B. Ectopic pregnancy
- C. Urinary incontinence
- D. Pelvic organ prolapse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy is a common complication of untreated gonorrhea or chlamydia infection in women. This occurs when a fertilized egg implants and grows outside the uterus, typically in one of the fallopian tubes. Both gonorrhea and chlamydia can lead to scarring of the fallopian tubes due to untreated inflammation and infection. This scarring may obstruct the fallopian tubes, making it difficult for the fertilized egg to travel to the uterus for implantation. As a result, the egg may implant and grow in the fallopian tube, leading to an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancies are dangerous and can result in serious complications for the woman, including rupture of the fallopian tube, internal bleeding, and potentially life-threatening situations. It is crucial to seek prompt treatment for gonorrhea and chlamydia to prevent such severe outcomes.
A patient presents with a pruritic, erythematous rash with scaly plaques and satellite papules and pustules in the inguinal folds and gluteal cleft. The patient reports recent antibiotic use for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Candidiasis (cutaneous candidiasis)
- B. Tinea cruris (jock itch)
- C. Erythrasma
- D. Intertrigo
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described indicates a candidal infection, which commonly occurs in warm, moist body areas like inguinal folds and gluteal cleft. The pruritic, erythematous rash with scaly plaques and satellite papules and pustules is characteristic of cutaneous candidiasis. The recent antibiotic use for urinary tract infection likely disrupted the normal skin flora, predisposing the patient to a Candida overgrowth. Tinea cruris (jock itch) can also present similarly, but the presence of satellite papules and pustules is more indicative of candidiasis. Erythrasma typically presents as well-defined brown-red patches without satellite lesions, and intertrigo is a more generic term referring to inflammation of skin folds that can have various causes, including candidiasis.