Nokea
A patient reports to the clinic nurse that she has not had a period in over 12 weeks, she is
- A. The patient's urine test is positive for hCG. What is the correct nursing action related to this information?
- B. Ask the patient if she has had any nausea or vomiting in the morning.
- C. Schedule the patient to be seen by a health care provider within the next 4 weeks.
- D. Send the patient to the maternity screening area of the clinic for a routine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because scheduling the patient to be seen by a healthcare provider within the next 4 weeks is important for further evaluation and management of the patient's amenorrhea. This timeline allows for timely assessment and potential interventions if needed.
Choice A is incorrect as simply having a positive urine hCG test does not provide enough information on its own to determine the appropriate nursing action.
Choice B is incorrect as asking about nausea or vomiting does not address the need for a comprehensive assessment and evaluation of the patient's amenorrhea.
Choice D is incorrect as sending the patient to the maternity screening area assumes a pregnancy-related issue without proper evaluation and could lead to unnecessary testing or interventions.
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Jose's wife, Camilla, is 5 months pregnant and seems more interested in sex than during the first trimester. However, he has told her he is worried about having normal 'relations,' fearing it will hurt the baby. What information can the nurse provide to assist in their decision about sexual activity?
- A. The baby is well protected and will not be injured during intercourse as long as the membranes remain intact and there are no symptoms of preterm labor.
- B. Your husband is correct to be concerned. It would be best if you avoid female orgasm during intercourse.
- C. Intercourse is okay, but avoid experimenting with different partner positions.
- D. Enjoy intimate relations while you can. Things will change after the baby is born.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is A because it provides accurate information. Intercourse during pregnancy is generally safe as long as there are no complications, and the baby is well protected by the amniotic fluid and membranes.
Step 2: The membranes act as a barrier to protect the baby, and as long as there are no signs of preterm labor, intercourse should not harm the baby.
Step 3: Option B is incorrect because there is no evidence to support that female orgasm during intercourse could harm the baby. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid experimenting with different positions unless advised by a healthcare provider. Option D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and doesn't provide accurate information.
Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of:
- A. inadequate intake of iron.
- B. dilution of hemoglobin concentration.
- C. the fetus establishing iron stores.
- D. decreased production of erythrocytes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiologic anemia during pregnancy occurs due to the expansion of plasma volume, causing a dilution of hemoglobin concentration. Increased blood volume is necessary to support the growing fetus, leading to a relative decrease in hemoglobin levels. Inadequate iron intake (Choice A) can cause iron-deficiency anemia but is not the primary reason for physiologic anemia in pregnancy. The fetus establishing iron stores (Choice C) is unrelated to the maternal anemia. Decreased production of erythrocytes (Choice D) is not the main cause of anemia in pregnancy; rather, it is the dilution effect from increased plasma volume.
The maternity nurse understands that vascular volume increases 40% to 45% during pregnancy to:
- A. compensate for decreased renal plasma flow
- B. provide adequate perfusion of the placenta
- C. eliminate metabolic wastes of the mother
- D. prevent maternal and fetal dehydration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increased vascular volume ensures adequate placental perfusion to support fetal growth and oxygenation.
Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate?
- A. Viability—22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g).
- B. Full Term—Pregnancy from the beginning of week 39 of gestation to the end of week 40.
- C. Preterm—Pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks.
- D. Postdate—Pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full Term is 39 to 40 weeks of gestation.
Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy due to
- A. inadequate intake of iron.
- B. the fetus establishing iron stores.
- C. dilution of hemoglobin concentration.
- D. decreased production of erythrocytes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Physiologic anemia during pregnancy occurs due to the dilution of hemoglobin concentration. As blood volume increases more than red blood cell production, hemoglobin becomes more diluted, leading to lower hemoglobin levels. Inadequate iron intake (A) can cause iron-deficiency anemia, not physiologic anemia. The fetus establishing iron stores (B) is not a cause of anemia in the mother. Decreased production of erythrocytes (D) is not the primary reason for physiologic anemia during pregnancy.