Nokea
A patient understands the common causes of urinary tract infection if he or she states the following, EXCEPT:
- A. “UTI can be caused by holding the urge to urinate.”
- B. “Insertion of instruments and catheter to the urinary tract can introduce bacteria that can cause infection.”
- C. “I usually drink lots of water at night and it might have caused my UTI.”
- D. “UTI can be caused by unhygienic cleaning after defecation.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid balance?
- A. Daily intake and output
- B. Vital signs
- C. Daily weight
- D. Skin turgor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily intake and output. Monitoring fluid balance involves tracking the amount of fluids taken in and expelled from the body. Intake includes oral, IV, and tube feedings, while output includes urine, vomitus, diarrhea, and any other fluid losses. Daily intake and output provide a comprehensive view of a patient's fluid status, helping identify trends and potential issues. Vital signs (B) provide general information but not specific to fluid balance. Daily weight (C) can fluctuate due to various factors, not just fluid status. Skin turgor (D) is a late sign of dehydration and not as reliable as intake and output monitoring.
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is prescribed zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [retrovir]), 200mg PO every 4 hours. When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should provide which instruction?
- A. “Take zidovudine with meals.”
- B. “Take zidovudine on an empty stomach.”
- C. “Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock.”
- D. “Take over-the-counter(OTC) drugs to treat minor adverse reactions.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock." Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing schedule to maintain therapeutic blood levels. Taking the medication every 4 hours around the clock helps to ensure consistent levels in the body, maximizing its efficacy. Taking it with meals (choice A) or on an empty stomach (choice B) is not specifically indicated for zidovudine. Choice D is incorrect as taking OTC drugs without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to drug interactions or adverse effects. Hence, choice C is the most appropriate instruction to ensure the client benefits from the medication.
The following would be a symptom the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient with macular degeneration, EXCEPT:
- A. Decreased ability to distinguish colors
- B. Loss of central vision
- C. Loss of near vision
- D. Loss of peripheral vision
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loss of peripheral vision. Macular degeneration affects the central vision, specifically the macula, which is responsible for central vision and sharp detail. Loss of peripheral vision is not a typical symptom of macular degeneration. The macula is located in the center of the retina, so symptoms would relate to central vision impairments such as decreased ability to distinguish colors, loss of central vision, and loss of near vision. Peripheral vision is not primarily affected by macular degeneration, hence it is not an expected symptom.
Why should the nurse monitor angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors cautiously in clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults?
- A. A sudden raise in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose
- B. A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose
- C. A sudden drop in body temperature may occur during the first 1-3hours after the initial dose
- D. A sudden rise in pulse rate may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dosage CARING WITH CLIENTS WITH CEREBROVASCULAR DISORDER
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause vasodilation, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults, these medications may not be cleared from the body as efficiently, increasing the risk of hypotension. Monitoring is crucial to prevent complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: A sudden raise in BP is unlikely with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
C: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors do not affect body temperature.
D: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors typically do not cause a sudden rise in pulse rate.
In summary, monitoring for a potential drop in blood pressure is essential in vulnerable populations when using angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
A charge nurse is reviewing outcome statements using the SMART approach. Which patient outcome statement will the charge nurse praise to the new nurse?
- A. The patient will ambulate in hallways.
- B. The nurse will monitor the patient’s heart rhythm continuously this shift. The patient will feed self at all mealtimes today without reports of shortness of
- C. breath. The nurse will administer pain medication every 4 hours to keep the patient free from
- D. discomfort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it follows the SMART approach: Specific (monitor heart rhythm), Measurable (continuously this shift), Achievable (feed self at all mealtimes), Relevant (shortness of breath), and Time-bound (today). Choice A lacks specificity and measurability. Choice C focuses on the nurse's action, not patient outcomes. Choice D lacks specificity and measurability, focusing on the nurse's actions rather than patient outcomes.