Nokea
A patient was fitted with an arm cast after fracturing her humerus. Twelve hours after the application of the cast, the patient tells the nurse that her arm hurts. Analgesics do not relieve the pain. What would be the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Prepare the patient for opening or bivalving of the cast.
- B. Obtain an order for a different analgesic.
- C. Encourage the patient to wiggle and move the fingers.
- D. Petal the edges of the patients cast.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute compartment syndrome involves a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the tissues distal to an area of injury that results in ischemic necrosis if prompt, decisive intervention does not occur. Removing or bivalving the cast is necessary to relieve pressure. Ordering different analgesics does not address the underlying problem. Encouraging the patient to move the fingers or perform range-of-motion exercises will not treat or prevent compartment syndrome. Petaling the edges of a cast with tape prevents abrasions and skin breakdown, not compartment syndrome.
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The orthopedic nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of Volkmanns contracture if a patient has fractured which of the following bones?
- A. Femur
- B. Humerus
- C. Radial head
- D. Clavicle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most serious complication of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus is Volkmanns ischemic contracture, which results from antecubital swelling or damage to the brachial artery. This complication is specific to humeral fractures.
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has had a below-the-knee amputation. The nurse enters the patients room and finds him resting in bed with his residual limb supported on pillow. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
- A. Inform the surgeon of this finding.
- B. Explain the risks of flexion contracture to the patient.
- C. Transfer the patient to a sitting position.
- D. Encourage the patient to perform active ROM exercises with the residual limb.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The residual limb should not be placed on a pillow, because a flexion contracture of the hip may result. There is no acute need to contact the patients surgeon. Encouraging exercise or transferring the patient does not address the risk of flexion contracture.
The surgical nurse is admitting a patient from postanesthetic recovery following the patients below-the-knee amputation. The nurse recognizes the patients high risk for postoperative hemorrhage and should keep which of the following at the bedside?
- A. A tourniquet
- B. A syringe preloaded with vitamin K
- C. A unit of packed red blood cells, placed on ice
- D. A dose of protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immediate postoperative bleeding may develop slowly or may take the form of massive hemorrhage resulting from a loosened suture. A large tourniquet should be in plain sight at the patients bedside so that, if severe bleeding occurs, it can be applied to the residual limb to control the hemorrhage. PRBCs cannot be kept at the bedside. Vitamin K and protamine sulfate are antidotes to warfarin and heparin, but are not administered to treat active postsurgical bleeding.
A young patient is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. The nurses most recent assessment reveals that the patient is uncharacteristically confused. What diagnostic test should be performed on this patient?
- A. Electrolyte assessment
- B. Electrocardiogram
- C. Arterial blood gases
- D. Abdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, or confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture are indications for immediate arterial blood gas studies due to the possibility of fat embolism syndrome. This assessment finding does not indicate an immediate need for electrolyte levels, an ECG, or abdominal ultrasound.
A patient is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after stepping in a hole and falling. While assessing him the nurse notes that his right leg is shorter than his left leg; his right hip is noticeably deformed and he is in acute pain. Imaging does not reveal a fracture. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for this patients signs and symptoms?
- A. Subluxated right hip
- B. Right hip contusion
- C. Hip strain
- D. Traumatic hip dislocation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of a traumatic dislocation include acute pain, change in positioning of the joint, shortening of the extremity, deformity, and decreased mobility. A subluxation would cause moderate deformity, or possibly no deformity. A contusion or strain would not cause obvious deformities.