Nokea
A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia
- B. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections
- C. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves
- D. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. Teaching the patient to self-administer these injections can help increase the neutrophil count and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is incorrect as hospital admission may not be necessary if the patient can manage the condition at home. Option C is not ideal as discontinuing chemotherapy can impact the leukemia treatment. Option D is unrelated to managing neutropenia in this scenario.
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A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse¢â‚¬â„¢s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?
- A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
- B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
- C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
- D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis?
- A. Take a daily multivitamin with iron
- B. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day
- C. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible
- D. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid exposure to crowds when possible.' This instruction is crucial in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis because exposure to crowds increases the risk of infection, which is the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking a daily multivitamin with iron (Choice A) may be beneficial for some individuals but is not specifically related to managing sickle cell crisis. Limiting fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day (Choice B) is not typically recommended for patients with sickle cell crisis, as adequate hydration is important. Drinking only two caffeinated beverages daily (Choice D) is not a priority instruction in managing sickle cell crisis.
Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?
- A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
- B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.
Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia?
- A. A patient with chronic heart failure
- B. A patient who has viral pneumonia
- C. A patient who has right leg cellulitis
- D. A patient with multiple abdominal drains
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection due to low white blood cell production. Assigning a roommate with viral pneumonia (choice B), cellulitis (choice C), or multiple abdominal drains (choice D) could expose the patient with aplastic anemia to potential infectious agents, which could further compromise their health.