Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?
- A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
- B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
- C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
- D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.
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Which information shown in the table below about a patient who has just arrived in the emergency department is most urgent for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Platelet count
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. The platelet count is severely decreased, indicating a risk for spontaneous bleeding, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. While heart rate, abdominal pain, and white blood cell count are important, a severely decreased platelet count poses a more imminent threat to the patient's health and requires urgent communication to the healthcare provider. The nurse should prioritize addressing this potentially life-threatening issue to ensure prompt intervention and management.
During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?
- A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
- B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
- C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
- D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.
The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
- A. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
- B. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
- C. Do you take medication containing salicylates?
- D. How long have you been taking antihypertensive drugs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you take medication containing salicylates?' Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Salicylates, which are found in medications like aspirin, interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Asking about salicylate-containing medications is crucial in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the development of petechiae.
Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Reticulocyte count
- C. Total lymphocyte count
- D. Absolute neutrophil count
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Absolute neutrophil count. Filgrastim (Neupogen) works by stimulating the production and function of neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the Absolute neutrophil count is crucial to assess the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophil levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because platelet count, reticulocyte count, and total lymphocyte count do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophils, which are essential in fighting infections during chemotherapy.
The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy
- B. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion
- C. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band
- D. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before a transfusion as their education includes measurement of vital signs. UAP would then report the vital signs to the registered nurse (RN). Option A is typically a nursing responsibility to ensure patient safety and avoid errors in patient identification. Option C involves cross-checking important details and ensuring accuracy, which is usually performed by nursing staff to prevent errors. Option D requires monitoring for potential adverse reactions during the transfusion, which is a nursing responsibility due to the need for assessment and intervention in case of complications.