Nokea
A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
- A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
- B. The cancer cells look like normal cells.
- C. Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer.
- D. It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tis, N0, M0 means carcinoma in situ cancer's stuck to the cervix's surface, no invasion (T0), no lymph nodes (N0), no metastases (M0). It's early, contained. B's wrong grading, not staging, covers cell look (differentiation). C's off no spread's confirmed already. D's nonsense the cervix is the origin. Nurses break this down in oncology to ease fears only the cervix' signals a shot at cure with local treatment, not systemic chaos yet.
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Animal experiments have shown that destruction of the ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus leads to unrestrained eating, because a specific structure is lost. Question: Which structure is lost?
- A. The amygdala
- B. The vagus nerve
- C. The satiety centre
- D. The feeding centre
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ventromedial zap satiety centre dies, eating runs wild, not amygdala's fear, vagus' gut, or feeding's drive. Nurses link this, a chronic overeat switch.
Mr Tan aged 50 years old has a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg taken on waking up and 140/90 mmHg at night. He also has a UAE of 200 mg/24 hours. He has type 2 diabetes. Which of the following actions will be most likely reduce the UAE to normal?
- A. Get the patient to lose 10% of his body weight
- B. Prescribe a SGLT2 e.g. empagliflozin
- C. Control the blood pressure to 130/80 mmHg
- D. Get the patient to exercise 150 minutes a week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAE 200, diabetes BP to 130/80 slashes albumin; weight, SGLT2, exercise, nifedipine help less direct. Nurses hit this chronic kidney key.
The nurse caring for oncology clients knows that which form of metastasis is the most common?
- A. Bloodborne
- B. Direct invasion
- C. Lymphatic spread
- D. Via bone marrow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metastasis is the process by which cancer spreads from its original site to distant parts of the body, a critical concern in oncology nursing. Among the various mechanisms, bloodborne metastasis is the most common, as cancer cells often enter the bloodstream and travel to organs like the lungs, liver, or brain. This occurs because the circulatory system provides an efficient pathway for tumor cells to disseminate widely, especially in cancers like breast or lung cancer. Lymphatic spread is also frequent, particularly in carcinomas, where cells travel via lymph nodes, but it is less dominant than bloodborne spread across all cancer types. Direct invasion involves cancer growing into adjacent tissues, which is a local process rather than true metastasis. Bone marrow is not a medium for metastasis but a potential site where cancer can settle, such as in leukemia or multiple myeloma. Understanding that bloodborne metastasis predominates helps nurses prioritize monitoring for systemic symptoms and complications, such as organ dysfunction, in clients with advanced cancer.
Glycaemic profiles of people with diabetes varies with all EXCEPT:
- A. Diet
- B. Exercise
- C. Stress
- D. Monitoring of blood glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sugar swings food, sweat, drugs, checks shift it; dress' is a typo for stress, but stress fits, not fabric. Nurses track this chronic dance, not wardrobe.
The nurse is caring for a 65-year-old female who presented to the emergency department with shortness of breath and chest discomfort. The client has not been feeling well for the past few days and complains of a productive cough of blood-tinged sputum. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), and chest x-ray reveals pulmonary congestion. Based on the assessment findings, which of the following diagnosis are consistent with these findings?
- A. Heart failure (left-sided)
- B. Lung cancer
- C. Heart failure (right-sided)
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated BNP and pulmonary congestion plus dyspnea, chest pain, hemoptysis point to left-sided heart failure, where ventricle falters, flooding lungs with fluid. Lung cancer might bleed but lacks BNP spike. Right-sided failure swells periphery, not lungs initially. Pulmonary embolism clots, not congests, with normal BNP. Nurses link this to left heart strain, anticipating diuretics, a diagnosis fitting this wet-lung picture.